OMG my mentions are really piling up. What actually happens is that every time I write anything on the politics forums the replies depress me terribly and I have to stay away for days. I should know better. Back to math.
First of all, the point about formal systems. I completely agree that the formal proof is not the essential part of a theorem about geometry! I'll tell you more: I am pretty convinced that the formal proof alone does not contain the essential information necessary to "understand" the theorem, and I started to write on this forum because I was looking for somebody that has some results/ideas on this point. Please take a look at my last post on the discussion that I opened about two months ago: "Is it possible to define a measure how 'interesting' is a theorem?" (https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/5789/is-it-possible-to-define-a-measure-how-interesting-is-a-theorem).
Then, since nobody seemed to find the subject interesting, I started to reply to posts about infinity.. :-) — Mephist
I didn't read that thread because I thought the answer was trivial. You can measure citations of a paper, and that is commonly done. It works the same way as Google's page rank algorithm. Alternatively, it's unanswerable, because sometimes it takes decades or even centuries for the value of a mathematical insight to become apparent. But I'll glance at that thread if you like, once I catch up with my mentions. Which never happens.
But the point of the discussion about infinity was more or less this one: "are ZFC axioms about infinity right?" and my answer was: "you cannot use a formal logic system to decide which kind of infinity exists". And I said you that I "don't like" ZFC because, for example, of Banach-Tarski paradox. — Mephist
Well of course no axiomatic foundation for math can be right. People did math for thousands of years without any foundation at all, and now we've got several. But I would draw a line in the sand here and say that set theory has been extraordinarily successful as a theory of infinity, and I don't know that HOTT or Category theory are any improvement at all.
Of course no foundation can be "right" about infinity until the physicists discover actual infinity in the universe and report back to us. Just as we didn't know whether Euclidean or non-Euclidean geometry was right until Einstein's great breakthrough.
Regarding B-T, surely it's not right about the world (unless it is -- work for the physicists again). But as a theorem of ZFC, it's as right as a legal position in chess. Which is to say that it's the endpoint of a legal sequence of moves in a formal game.
Let me try to explain this point: I am not saying that ZFC is wrong and Type Theory, or Coq, is right. — Mephist
That's good, because the claim is meaningless. There is no right or wrong about it. Only useful or not, beautiful or not, interesting or not, fashionable this century as opposed to last.
I am saying that the encoding of segments (and even surfaces and solids) as sets of points is not "natural", — Mephist
There was a poster here a while back who gave me some great insights along these lines, before becoming so insufferably rude that I could no longer interact with him. I learned that Charles Sanders Peirce noted that the set-theoretic continuum can't possibly be the right model of a continuum, because a continuum must have the property that every part of it is the same as the whole; and a set, being decomposable into the union of its singleton points, fails this test.
If that's what you mean, I take your point. But knowing what's the "right" model of the continuum is beyond my own personal pay grade. I know that Weyl and Brouwer and others had many deep thoughts along these lines. I know little of these matters.
What I do know is that the set-theoretic continuum, having won the 20th century, underpins all modern physical theory. If one seeks to overthrow that foundation, one has much work to do.
because you can build functions that have as input a set of definite measure and as output a set where measure is not definable: the transformations on sets and on measures are not part of the same category! Of course, you can say that this is because there really exist geometric objects that are not measurable, and it is really a feature of geometry, and not of ZFC. — Mephist
If we accept the point-set foundation, then it's reasonable that not every point-set is measurable. After all, there are some wild point-sets. If you reject point-sets, then I guess not. But nonmeasurable sets in ZFC depend on the axiom of choice, and perhaps that's what you object to. It's AC that gives us sets whose only property is existence, with no clue as to how to construct them or identify their elements.
Well, in that case you have to admit that there exist several different geometries, — Mephist
Well yeah, but the Euclidean/non-Euclidean example gives us a good historical datapoint. There are lots of geometries but only one "true geometry" of the universe. But I'm not interested much in applications. The physicists can do their thing. I'll wear my formalist hat and steer cleer of ontological issues.
because there are sound logic systems based on type theory where all sets are measurable and lines are made of a countable set of "elementary" lines (integrals are always defined as series) (elementary lines have the property that their squared length is zero), and Banach-Tarski is false. — Mephist
I'll take your word for that. Are you talking about SIA? What of it? There are
variations of chess too. It doesn't bother me.
But why are you hung up on Banach-Tarski? If you don't like point-sets, your objecions to standard math would be much wider than that.
So, we can ask which one of the possible geometries is the "right" one. — Mephist
As meaningless as the question of which variant of chess is the right one. Or whether in some fan fiction, Ahab is the cabin boy and not the captain of the Pequod, and whether that's right or wrong.
What do you mean by right one? Right as in best foundation for math? Or right as in true about the actual world? I don't share your focus on trying to figure out what's right about things that you and I will never be able to know, unless the next Einstein hurries up and gets born.
The problem is that they are only mathematical models. From my point of view, this is exactly the same thing as mathematical models for physics (or maybe you want to consider euclidean geometry as a model, but in that case non measurable sets surely do not exist): the best mathematical model is the one that encodes the greatest number of physical results using the smallest number of physical laws, and none of them is perfectly corresponding to physical reality anyway. — Mephist
That's a pragmatic requirement I don't share. You think math is required to be bound by physics. Riemann kicked the hell out of that belief in the 1840's. You think math is physics. Mathematicians don't share that opinion. Math is whatever mathematicans find interesting. If the rest of the world finds an application, more the better, but that is never the point of research in pure mathematics.
I was looking for a formal proof of BT in ZF Set theory — Mephist
There could never be such. ZFC is necessary.
because the critical part of BT is the function that builds the non measurable sets (the one defined using of the axiom of choice). — Mephist
Right. So why look for a proof in ZF that could never exist?
You are right that in most cases the formal logic is not necessary at all, but in this case the result of the theorem depends in a critical way on the actual encoding of a continuous space as a set of points. — Mephist
I really don't follow your point here at all. B-T is the least of it. If you reject point-sets as the foundation of math, that's fine, but then you have to rebuild a LOT of stuff. B-T is the very least of it. I don't understand why you regard B-T as uniquely interesting in the context of completely re-founding math on non point-set principles.
In fact, I am pretty convinced that It's possible to encode euclidean geometry in ZF Set theory in a way that is perfectly sensible for all results of euclidean geometry but makes BT false (I think I can do it in Coq, but surely you wouldn't like it.. :-) ) — Mephist
Why wouldn't I like it? Why would I even care? You seem to be tilting at windmills that I'm not defending. All I've ever said about set theory is that
it won the 20th century and that Planck noted that science progresses one funeral at a time. Surely that shows my open-mindedness about historically contingent trends in foundations.
And as I already pointed out, if set theory is no longer required to be foundational, it becomes interesting for its own sake. It makes no difference to practitioners of set theory whether it's foundational or not.
That is not true: the definition of measure is purely algebraic, and can be used with ANY definition of sets: it's the same thing as for calculus, derivatives, integrals, etc.. — Mephist
I don't know what you mean but reading ahead I think I do so let's defer this for a moment ...
Well, I think you can easily guess: I studied electronic engineering (Coq can be used to proof the correctness of digital circuits), but I am working as a software developer. But I am even interested in mathematics and physics, and even philosophy, so I think I am not the "standard" kind of software developer.. :-) — Mephist
Well, engineers definitely have a pragmatic view of math. And one of my ongoing theses is that there are a lot of people studying computer science these days who thirty years ago would have studied math. So the mathematical point of view is somewhat lost among many people these days. But when you said that the purpose of a math foundation is to be able to found physics, that's just wrong. It's not how mathematicians view it at all.
I didn't say that I don't like point sets: I said that point sets are not a good model for 3-dimensional geometric objects, — Mephist
Ok. I can't argue the point but even if I could I don't have much reason to.
and I am not very original with this idea: in HOTT segments are not sets but 1-spaces. The word "sets" is defined as synonymous of 0-space (or "discrete" space). — Mephist
Ok. I wasn't aware that HOTT had gotten to the point of replacing differential geometry in general relativity, nor functional analysis in quantum physics. Are you making those claims? If so I am not sure I believe you. I watch a lot of physics videos these days and they're all differential geometry and functional analysis. The Schrödinger equation is functional analysis, not homotopy type theory. I think you're making claims that are more aspirational than true of the current state of the art.
Point-set topology and algebraic topology are equivalent, and all modern mathematics and physics since Grothendieck (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexander_Grothendieck) are based on category theory: as you just said, they really don't care much about foundations... :-) — Mephist
Well yes and no. Analysis hasn't been categorized much. But physics? Again I think this is an aspirational claim. Loop quantum gravity uses n-categories but as far as I know relativity and quantum theory use classical 20th century math.
Both string theory and loop quantum gravity (the two most trendy at the moment....) (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Loop_quantum_gravity) make heavy use of algebraic topology: not only they don't care "of what are made" the objects of the theory, but they are even not clear if they are something geometric, or maybe can be interpreted as emergent structures coming from something even more fundamental. This is the point of view of category theory: don't describe how objects are made, but only how they relate with each-other. — Mephist
Yes ok but LQG is not the standard theory yet. You're being aspirational again.
I was speaking about changing the topology of a set: any open set (that has no minimum or maximum) can be transformed into a set with a minimum (lower bound), not open and not closed. — Mephist
You are misapplying the well-ordering theorem. Bijections can radically change the order properties of a set. And the well-ordering theorme is equivalen to the axiom of choice so what of it? Reject one, reject the other. Take it up with Zermelo.
If the isometries used in BT are continuous transformations, they should preserve the topology of the sets that are transformed. — Mephist
Isometries preserve measure. They're rigid motions in space.
My guess is that the ones used in BT cannot be continuous on sets that are not discrete (that is one of the things that I wanted to understand from the formal proof..). — Mephist
I'm not sure exactly what you mean by continuous on sets that aren't discrete. All isometries are continuous and measure preserving (on sets that have a defined measure), period.
In other words, I think that to make that transformation you have to destroy the topological structure of the object (but I am actually not sure about this). — Mephist
I don't think so. Isometries are continuous since they preserve distances, and they preserve measure.
If this wasn't possible (and, as I understand, it's not possible without axiom of choice) I think BT would be false. — Mephist
Isometries aren't mysterious, they're rigid motions of space. Flips, rotations, translations. Clearly continuous, measure preserving, "shape-preserving" if you like. If you translate a triangle it's still a triangle. This is not mysterious nor does it require any esoteric philosophical assumptions.
Yes, it's even more interesting because of the fact that it is an (apparent) paradox, and paradoxes are the most informative and interesting parts of mathematics. — Mephist
It's a veridical paradox, meaning that it is NOT actually a contradiction, it merely violates our intuition. It should be named the Banach-Tarski
theorem, since that's what it is. Now if you want to argue from that that the axiom of choice should be rejected, or points should be rejected, or sets should be rejected, that's fine. But it doesn't alter the fact that B-T is a theorem of ZFC, and moreover,
not an extremely difficult one.
And as I mentioned earlier, it rests on the paradoxical decomposition of the free group on two letters, which at some point I should talk about, because this is a
very strange paradox that has
nothing at all to do with points or the axiom of choice or anything else questionable. It's very very simple and natural.
Well, I have my doubts here. These are rigid motions on countable subsets of points, it means only on subsets with zero measure. — Mephist
No not so. An isometry is a rigid motion on countable and uncountable sets. If I take the unit square and translate it 3 units to the right and 3 units up, the shape and measure are preserved. All measures are preserved.
I think you should open up a separate thread on Banach-Tarski so we could talk about these issues without all the philosophical baggage. You are misunderstanding a lot of basic issues. If you have a point set of any cardinality and measure, an isometry preserves its cardinality and measure. And shape, even though that's not a technical definition.
I am quite sure that they cannot be continuous transformations on measurable subsets with non-zero measure. — Mephist
You're simply wrong on this technical point. You should open a separate thread on B-T because we can't walk through that proof while you're claiming physics is based on HOTT and that mathematicians have point sets wrong. These are very different issues.
Regarding B-T you are misinformed on the basic math, on issues that are
very clear and simple, and that we should discuss separately.
If you have a proof that they are, I am very interested in it ( even not formal :-) ) — Mephist
That a reflection, rotation, and translation are continuous? A freshman calculus student could work out those proofs. Measure preserving? A little trickier but not difficult.
Come on. Are you doubting that a translation is continuous? A reflection? A rotation? Why are you making these claims whose disproof is so elementary? I don't follow your logic here. Don't mean to be piling on, but after all this heavy-duty category theory and philosophy you are missing some very elementary freshman calculus.
You have a set of points which you can think of as vectors in the plane or space. You add a constant vector to each point. The resulting point set has the same shape and measure, and the transformation is continuous. I can not accept that this is not obvious to an engineering major.
Yes ok what of it? From the basic axioms of measure one proves the existence of a nonmeasurable set. And from that, Banach-Tarski.
I gather you are trying to make the claim that measure theory is "algebraic." That's a point of semantics. From countable additivity plus the axiom of choice, the existence of a nonmeasurable set falls out. Have you seen the proof? It's not difficult. Well it's not difficult after one's been through it a few times. Like everything else. But it's a very cool proof. It's a paradigm of all axiom of choice proofs.
But the bottom line, and this has been a long post so here is the tl;dr:
Your interest in Banach-Tarski is orthogonal to all the philosophical and foundational issues; and the confusion generated by conflating these things is causing you to misunderstand some extremely elementary points of math, such as the continuity of translations and rotations and reflections.
Ok one post down, so many more to go ... thanks for reading.
ps -- Here is the proof that an isometry preserve a
Hausdorff measure, which the measure on Euclidean 3-space is an example of. In the general case it's not true but that case doesn't concern us.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/695492/isometry-vs-measure-preserving
pps -- Simpler theorem on point. Isometries preserve Lebesgue measure of Euclidean space.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/242837/lebesgue-measure-is-invariant-under-isometry