Should fines be levied in proportion to an offenders income? Hard labor in a quarry seems reasonable to me, Greg.
Being the godless communist that I am, I can see the merit in having a fine proportionate to one's income.
However, I can see the argument (without agreeing with it) that all individuals should be equal before the law in their punishment. Then again, the lofty ideal of equality-before-the-law has never been fully achieved, and, to make matters more complicated, their are two perceptions of achieving it:
The Proportional Method: Since nobody can truly be economically equal, the law should operate proportionally to income. The law should acknowledge the wealth gap between agents, and should compensate for the sake of egalitarianism.
The "Justice is Blind" Method: In theory, this mode of justice should completely ignore everything but the facts pertaining to the case: the agent(s) and the action(s). Wealth and privilege should be ignored, because that is the only way legal equality to be achieved.
There's quite a bit of dialectical tension between the two. I for one can see these schools of thoughts permeating American politics and culture. The question is, which one is more in line with that good ol' fashioned sense of Liberal Egalitarianism.