I find it much more useful to address circumstances than abstracts, especially when it comes to considering the appropriateness of laws and government action.
I want to give an example. Recently, statues of slave owners were torn down by outraged teens - signalling their virtue. One man, Colston - was born in 1636, which - someone might have pointed out were free speech a protected right, was about 200 years before slavery was ended. — counterpunch
If the statute was one of Edward Colson, he was deputy governor of the English Royal African Company, which held a monopoly on England's African trade slave.
I suppose the erection of statues could be considered a form of free speech. If so, I think tearing them down could be as well.
Here in the U.S., the First Amendment applies only to laws and government action. So, teens toppling statutes wouldn't be considered a violation of the legal right of free speech. It would be considered vandalism or destruction of property, however. Government agents arresting or penalizing the teens for doing so could raise First Amendment issues, I think, which may be why there seems to be little effort to punish those who destroy or deface certain statutes.
Now, clearly there could be and are people who think destroying or defacing statutes of heroes of the Confederacy or other statues is improper, and even violates the right of free speech. I, personally, wouldn't weep if there were no such statutes. But there is no legal right of free speech that's violated in the U.S. in those circumstances. Thus, the importance of defining "the right of free speech." In the U.S., the government has no obligation to protect speech by some from others, except to the extent other law is violated (e.g., laws prohibiting disorderly conduct).
Much as people may object to the use of boycotts or protests by other people to restrict speech, this isn't a legal issue in the U.S. generally unless it becomes violent, or some law other than the First Amendment is violated. Otherwise, people may debate whether such conduct is or is not proper or moral, but law isn't a consideration. So unless the law changes very significantly, the government here won't become involved in claims of violation of the non-legal right of free speech. Nor will people who aren't associated with government be subject to claims they've violated the legal right of free speech. The government may be subject to claims it has violated the legal right itself, as may state owned/operated universities, however.
It seems that in the U.K. they're considering making or have made speech a right protected by the government; in other words, government would enforce the right of free speech at least in some circumstances, and even require it be "promoted." That would be interesting, and I think very difficult to do.