Proof of nihil ex nihilo? ~p & ~p -> p leads to a contradiction — Pippen
1)
No, it doesn't. What you're correct about is that you can indeed put something other than statements in these logic formulas, unlike everyone else here seems to claim, but you have to note that then ¬p&p isn't a contradiction anymore. Define p as, say, a potato. Then ¬p means anything but a potato. Potatoes exist, so does that mean nothing but potatoes exist?
2)
The problem with the English language is the meaning of nothing, as it's kind of a homonym. "Nothing exists" can mean that there is no thing that exists, or that a thing that is called nothing exists. ¬p in your claim means the latter, closer to nothingness than to nothing in its meaning, which is why ¬p&p is not a contradiction.
3)
If you mean nothing as in the former sense, then ¬p∨¬p→p is not what you're claiming anymore, as once ¬p→p has happened, ¬p is no longer true. ¬p is the case before, ¬p→p is the case after. Even if they contradicted each other, it wouldn't matter because they don't exist simultaneously.
4)
You can't assume that if something is created from nothing, then ¬p→p. The correct statement would be ¬p→p∨¬(¬p→p), or A→(¬p→p)∧B→¬(¬p→p) where A and B are some conditions, maybe even the events themselves.
5)
Feel free to correct me, but so far it seems like you don't have any real argument. You're just using logical connectives without understanding their actual meaning. If the formula was correct and contradicted intuition, it'd rather imply that logical connectives are fundamentally wrong. This is your contradiction translated to English: if nothing always results in something, then nothing can't exist, because it'd already then be something. This is basically the fourth point again but in English: your argument is false because it assumes that if something can follow from nothing, then something can and will always follow from nothing.