An inquiry into moral facts As a footnote to some of this discussion, I would say that Aristotle did not subscribe to a theory of truth that could be well described as a 'correspondence' theory. He does not use any word that could be translated as 'correspond' or 'correspondence' or 'match' or 'fit' or a plausible synonym.
What is a correspondence theory? On the one hand, facts. On the other, statements. If they correspond, then truth results. Problems: truth of counterfactual statements and negative 'facts', where there is ex hypothesi no corresponding fact; individuation of facts and statements and deciding when one statement or fact is the same as or different from another when setting up a supposed 'correspondence'.
What is Aristotle's theory? Like a lot of Aristotle's words, each word counts. “To say of what is that it is not, or of what is not that it is, is false, while to say of what is that it is, and of what is not that it is not, is true” This formulation does not have the problems of correspondence theory. If it's true that I might have eaten an egg for breakfast (though I did not) then I might have eaten an egg for breakfast. If the doorway is clear and there is no fat man in the doorway then it's true that there is no fat man in the doorway and since there is no thin man in the doorway it is also true that there is no thin man in the doorway. It helps to understand that he is challenging the Parmenidean view that no truth is to be obtained from reference to 'what is not' and that truth may only be generated by speaking of what is and saying that it is. Parmenides was closer to 'correspondence' theory than Aristotle, as was Plato.
All the above is contrary to received wisdom which may be greater than my wisdom. If you write in an essay that Aristotle did not subscribe to a correspondence theory of truth you may lose points. You may lose them justly for all I know, but I would like to know why.