Why are We Back-Peddling on Racial Color-Blindness?
I am going to repeat a post I made in case you missed it again. The conversation suddenly devolved and everyone else seems to have given up on discourse with you in this, but Im still interested in sorting this out with you. In particular, Id like to understand what utility you are getting out of defining racism that way. To me, the utility would have to be quite high to compensate for its flat denial of obvious facts about physical differences between some groups of humans. Also, I hope you arent taking my comments to be hostile. We disagree, and if Im wrong on my end Id like to hear why/how that's the case.
So here is my last comment:
“I do not think so. There are physical differences between certain groups of humans from different places/heritage. Of these physical differences, some generally correlate to skin colour (which is itself a physical difference). Examples might be hair colour (chinese generally are not born with blonde hair for example) or resistance to skin damage caused by sun exposure in the case of black people.
Thats accurate, and to include that as “racism” is too call anyone capable of noticing plain reality a racist. Thats not a good thing, as now it becomes more difficult to sort out the bad actors from the good ones, which is the reason why my way of defining racism had more utility. It helps identify bad actors...yours doesnt.
Obviously you are free to define it as you see fit, I just dont think it makes much sense.
Can you answer my question about the utility your definition provides? Im happy to change my mind for a better way of looking at this issue.”