Is Kant justified in positing the existence of the noumenal world? Those who put forward such assertions really themselves say, if we bear in mind what we remarked before, the direct opposite of what they mean: a fact which is perhaps best able to bring them to reflect on the nature of the certainty of senses experience. They speak of the existence of external objects, which can be more precisely characterized as actual, absolutely particular, individual things, each of them not like anything or anyone else; this is the existence which they say has absolute certainty and truth. They mean to say " this bit of paper I am writing on", or rather have written on: but they do not say [write] what they mean. If they really wanted to say "this bit of paper" which they "mean" and wanted to say so, that is impossible, because the "this" of sense, which is "meant", cannot be reached by language- Hegel, first chapter of PoS