Does infinite sets lead to infinite regress I would love to know how Frege answered Russell in the extra part added to his book right before it was published. Russell's theory of types just says that sets can't come before objects. That is an opinion. Maybe sets can come first. I have no idea how ZFC answers this, but they might be wrong
I think Newton was wrong to accuse Descartes in his putting of arithmetic higher than geometry. Newton and the Greeks were wrong (except of the Eleatics).
I don't get the step in the 7th proposition (of Euclid) when he says: "Since AC equals AD, therefore the angle ACD equals the angle ADC...Again, since CB equals DB, therefore the angle CDB also equals the angle DCB."
I understand how the proof goes in the sense that he shows that at first an angle seems to be larger than another, then equal, and thus there is a contradiction. IDN though, there is something missing here for me. He sets up what is an impossible situation given his geometry and thus when he tries to prove its wrong, doing it from his geometry, even though the setup in not in his geometry
Geometry starts from wrong principles, because space is inherently contradictory.