first, that employer-employee relations predated capitalism: contractual obligations between workers and employers can be found all through antiquity and the middle ages, even if not the predominant form of labour — Streetlight
Couldn’t feudal arrangements then be counted as a form of employment between lord and vassal? This relationship was a kind of contract too.
Like I said, this is a matter of definition. Perhaps it's all just a matter of scale, in the end. I think the word predominant there is important. Once that relationship rises to the degree that it does -- to the point where it's central to the socioeconomic system -- then we can call it a new system. It's no longer feudalism, even if feudal relationships still exist.
while I agree that the predominance of capitalist-worker relations do track with the advent of capitalism, they, again, follow from the dispossession of the means of production (farms, looms, equipment, institutions of learning and apprenticeship), and only once they are taken possession of by capitalists who turn it all into pure capital: means of profit making. Again, the market-dependence comes first. — Streetlight
As you rightly point out in the title of this thread, markets aren't capitalism and in fact pre-date capitalism. It's market-dependence that you highlight. But market-dependence follows from the existence of markets in the first place. Yet this fact doesn't negate your point that there's something
sui generis about the emergence of this dependence.
I think I'm making a similar point about the employer/employee relationship that emerged. True, dispossession of the means of production comes first -- as does the idea of property, ownership, profit, etc. -- but the fact that it is a necessary condition doesn't make it a sufficient condition to define capitalism by. (After all, we can imagine a worker-owned company being market-dependent too.) I would only say that I think it's imprecise to say an enterprise is still a capitalist one without the capitalists.
As with forms of government, I think the classification comes down to who has the power -- viz., who gets to make the decisions in a state or in an economy. In the case of the latter, the current world economy is dominated by the corporations. Corporations are controlled by their owners, and are governed undemocratically, as essentially an oligarchy. The owners are capitalists. Let's get rid of the capitalists. No capitalists, no capitalism.
No doubt there will still be the question of production, markets, profit-making, private property, and so on. But that's another discussion, in my view.
These distinctions are primarily analytic before they are strategic. — Streetlight
Agreed.
how mitigate market-dependency? — Streetlight
enable and institute a robust thriving baseline from which people can participate in their communities: this means housing for all (and if this means abolishing housing rent, then so be it), deep and well oiled healthcare systems not subject to profit, expansive and accessible public transport systems (which means eliminating car dependency and vastly mitigating oil dependency!), the absolute commitment to food and water security, which would in turn mean agricultural production that itself is not dictated by market imperatives and so on. — Streetlight
I'm in favor of all of the above, wholeheartedly. So regardless of how we define matters, we can agree on the goals. Any steps leading towards these ends would be beneficial, no matter how we taxonomize things.
I see what you mean, though what you'd need here is stakeholder ownership, rather than just worker ownership... but I suppose if you define capitalism that way, then yes, eliminating the owning class would eliminate capitalism. I'm just not sure capitalism is sensibly defined that way. — Isaac
Sure. Worker ownership is just one logical step towards a more inclusive system. There should be community involvement on every level, ultimately.
I try to avoid "stakeholder" because of the recent rise of "stakeholder capitalism," endorsed by the Chamber of Commerce and Business Roundtable. But your point is taken.
private property can exist in a non-capitalist system as well...as can markets...as can profit-making.
— Xtrix
Well... with limits. It's not the mere existence of private property that's a problem, but the effect of private property in constraining the decisions people make to those dictated by a market. One only need remove that private property which is effecting that constraint. — Isaac
Sure, but removing private property is not necessary to eliminate capitalism, in my view. It certainly would, but there are other ways you can do so as well. If workers own a business, that's a form of private property too. But that takes away the power dynamic central to corporate governance that (again, in my mind) basically defines capitalism. From workers you can go to a community, like a town. One can go to town hall meetings across the United States and give input/talk to representatives, etc. No reason this cannot extend to things like utilities (and often do) or supermarkets or drugstores or factories. There are all kinds of ways to organize business -- I'm not even particularly knowledgeable about it, but it happens.
while worker control doesn't solve the problem of private property, it would be tending in that direction.
— Xtrix
Interesting. I kind of see the two as quite separate (although I agree that worker control is a great thing). How do you see them as linked? — Isaac
For the reasons above. I think of it much like a form of government. Easier to get to, say, direct democracy from a republican form of government than it would be from an absolute monarchy. Right now the economy, as a system, is governed as a plutocracy. If we chip away at that by giving workers control, while we're not eliminating private property, we can see that it's not as big a jump to make towards a system run by the community as a whole.