Bloom meant that Socrates chose to be philosophy’s martyr.
— Todd Martin
I would be very surprised to learn that this is Bloom's view. — Fooloso4
Here is the actual quote from “Closing of the American Mind”:
“Achilles’ laments and complaints about why he must die for the Greeks and for his friend [Patroclus] are very different from Socrates’ arguments and the reasoning that underlies them for accepting death—because he is old, because it is inevitable, and because it costs him almost nothing and MIGHT [my all caps represent italics in the text] be useful to philosophy.” (p. 285)
Now, the context for this passage does not surround it in Bloom’s text, so we must go searching for it elsewhere; but we needn’t go far to find it. On p. 281 we read,
“Thus philosophy’s response to the hostility of civil society is an educational endeavor, rather more poetic or rhetorical than philosophic, the purpose of which is to temper the passions of gentlemen’s souls...The model for all such efforts is the dialogues of Plato, which together rival the Iliad and the Odyssey, or even the Gospels, introducing a new hero who excites admiration and imitation...Plato turns the [ridiculous] personage of The Clouds into one of those civilization-constituting figures like Moses, Jesus or Achilles...”
Notice that these three figures are all great men characterized by tragedy: Moses led his ppl to the promised land, but was not allowed to follow them there; Achilles bested Hector, but was not fated to see the conquest of Troy; and Jesus’ fate is most similar to Socrates’ in that he was put to death for heresy...
...therefore to my mind, when Bloom says, “and MIGHT be useful to philosophy”, he can only mean that he believed Socrates thought it likely, or at least not unlikely, that his life would be memorialized by his disciples after his death. This memorial would be in the form of writings about his life—ones that would appeal to the gentlemen, to that special class of men who were both partially sympathetic to him, and who had considerable political clout (cf pp. 276-7, beginning at “There are three groups of men...” etc)...
...and why does he italicize “MIGHT” here? Had he merely been speaking of the obvious fact that a man going to his grave cannot know what will occur after his death, then there would be no need for italics; something more is required to explain them. This is provided by Bloom’s analysis of the difference b/w ancient and modern philosophy with regard to fortune: the latter believes fortune can be mastered while the former does not (cf p. 286). Here, Bloom wants to emphasize Socrates’ respect for fortune: he (Socrates) can no more be sure that his life and death will be memorialized to the benefit of philosophy than that philosophers will rule (cf p. 284, “The Enlightenment Transformation”)...but he was willing to bet his life on it, at least acc. to Bloom.
Referring back to the quote from p. 285, notice the phrase, “and the reasoning that underlies them [Socrates’ arguments for accepting death].” By the underlying reasons I think Bloom meant the hidden ones (and real ones), for he does not even mention Socrates’ chief argument in the Apology of Plato: that it would be unjust for him to have benefitted all his life from Athens, then turn around and negate her lawfully conducted jurisdiction.
The physician treats the body with medicines that are to some degree harmful but restore and promote health. Socrates harmed the city by undermining its foundations, but he did so to promote the city's health. — Fooloso4
But what greater degree of harm can one do to something other than by undermining its foundation? So, to characterize what Socrates did to Athens as “to some degree harmful”, but overall good, yet undermining her foundation, undermines your analogy. And the idea that Socrates, after a lifetime of philosophizing, suddenly felt guilty after being indicted and was willing to be put to death seems rather silly Morosophos.
Modern philosophy and science overcame the domination of the Church. — Fooloso4
The Dark Ages were not lacking in philosophy. Aristotle and Plato were still respected and studied during the Middle Ages: the former was indeed incorporated into ecclesiastical doctrine, and though his teachings were modified to fit the church, that actually helped preserve him for the few scholars of philosophical bent who could then go back to the original texts.
Natural philosophy was already prominent, guided by the work of "the philosopher", that is, Aristotle. — Fooloso4
But the Renaissance scientists were busy contradicting Aristotle. The famous example of course, the one you read in the introductory chapter of physics books, where short shrift is given to ancient scientists and their naivety, is that he thought bodies of different weights would fall to the earth at different rates of speed. Aristotle may have inspired modern philosophy of the natural sort, but it soon left him in its wake.
Machiavelli died 1527. Galileo was born 1564. Francis Bacon was born 1561 — Fooloso4
It appears then that Machiavelli was not prompted in his political philosophy by these natural scientists, but that they rather were inspired by him. I appreciate this information, Fooloso4, for it tells me that the modern philosophical revolution, The Enlightenment, was directed inversely to the ancient one: in the beginning, men of thought were directed to the natural world, particularly to astronomy, and only later were forced to deal with politics. After many centuries of stasis, it was the political philosophers, not the natural ones, who dared/decided to shake things up.
Wouldn't those years be spent philosophizing with his friends? — Fooloso4
Finally, O Morosophos, let me only add this as reply: not if he were to live far from his patria in exile.