There are certainly anecdotal occurrences like this, but it doesn't change what I wrote. Japanese Americans aren't mostly attacking Whites for the internments. Blacks aren't mostly attacking Whites for their outrageous and still terrible treatment of them, and Native Americans arent' mostly spending their time attacking them for the holocaust White Americans and the White American US governments levied on them.
— Thanatos Sand
And no, the suggestion of an environmental component to gay-ness doesn't feed Nazism. But anti-science advocacy does.
As to the Black White supremacist, you'll have to ask someone else. I've never heard of such thing
— Thanatos Sand
But why?
from so simple a beginning endless forms most beautiful and most wonderful have been, and are being, evolved.
— Charles Darwin
If Darwin is right, this form too should've evolved. There's nothing impossible about it. There are whites who fight for blacks. So, the converse should be there.
Much as I don't like Sand's posturing, I think there is a logical gap here. A child has memories of being a mechanic; therefore the child has the same soul as the mechanic.
But memories are not soul.
I don't intend to argue Saussure with you.
It's certainly not standard convention; so you cant' impose it on others. If it was, people would have to always write in scare quotes to signify they are signifying the actual signified. Not only would that be unwieldy, it is not how we write in English. Its' certainly not how we teach people to write in English departments.
— Thanatos Sand
Well a convention is not something one imposes -- do as you like. I'm just telling you it's been standard practice in Anglo-American philosophy for more than a few generations now. Indeed, we do always use quotation marks when we want to signify the signifier. You get used to it.
I don't intend to argue Saussure with you.
It's been too long since I read Saussure, so I'm not sure what separating involves here and if that's what Michael and I think we're doing.
I might even agree that quotation marks are not the ideal way to do this, but in our circle it's the standard way of talking about a name (I'm speaking loosely here) instead of the name's bearer. Like I said, it's just a convention in our crowd (but evidently not yours) -- we could refer to Michael's name as <Michael> or Michael-name or Name(Michael) or whatever.
↪Thanatos Sand
It's a convention. We can talk about a thing by using its name; if we want to talk about the thing's name instead of the thing itself, we put the name in quotation marks. (Talking about the thing by using its name we call "use"; talking about the thing's name by putting the name in quotation marks, we call "mention.")
Thus Michael's name is "Michael," but Michael is not Michael's name, for the obvious reason that things are not identical with their names.
Quotation marks just have multiple uses, and this is one of them. — Srap Tasmaner
Quotation marks just have multiple uses, and this is one of them.
If you don't like the convention, you're free to ignore it, but it makes it more difficult to distinguish when you're talking about Michael from when you're talking about his name.
You continue to conflate use and mention.
↪Thanatos Sand
I am Michael. I am not a word. Therefore, Michael is not a word.
↪Thanatos Sand
I am Michael. I am not a word. Therefore, Michael is not a word.
↪Thanatos Sand
I am Michael. I am not a word. Therefore, Michael is not a word.
No, I don't. And it's astonishing you think Red is not a word and "red" isn't a color. That makes no sense at all.
— Thanatos Sand
It makes sense if you understand the distinction between use and mention. So if it doesn't make sense to you then you don't understand the distinction. There is one. It's astonishing to think that you don't see it.
↪Thanatos Sand You conflate use and mention.
Red is a colour, not a word, and "red" is a word, not a colour.
That doesn't mean that "correspondence" and correspondence are any different in semantics in their expressions themselves. They need further elaboration for that. But feel free to show how they're different without elaborating beyond the expressions themselves. You can't.
— Thanatos Sand
Well, "correspondence" is a 14-letter word whereas correspondence is a close similarity, connection, or equivalence between two or more things (or communication by exchange of letters).
Just as "red" is a 3-letter word whereas red is a colour. And just as "Michael" is 7-letter name whereas Michael likes to talk about himself in the third-person.
True. I can't explain how a single word has two senses without first explaining one sense and then explaining the other. So, for example, 'leg' can be used to include tails or it can be used correctly to exclude tails. "Correspondence" can be used to mean what correspondence usually means; or it can be used to mean anything you like in order to shore up a theory that thought and belief are all correspondence. That was the original complaint by another poster. It's worth thinking about even if you don't agree with it.
I won't actively participate in this thread, but I wanted to throw this into the mix: There has been historic slavery of white people. For some reason this gets ignored in favour of a narrative where white people are always and only the oppressors. Anyway, it's something for you to Google.
Identity politics has IMO contributed quite a bit to this phenomena of increased racial antagonisms. In fact, during the US presidential election I heard many a Democrat express absolute joy at the coming demise of the political power and influence of white middle and lower class voters. They often made no attempt to conceal the one group they do not represent, i.e. older white men, by conspicuously failing to mention them among those they do represent: blacks, Latinos, young people, women, etc. Reminds me of Carl Schmitt's friend/enemy distinction (as I understand it) as constituting the essence of politics.
And the fact Blacks, and Native Americans, and Latinos, and the Japanese Americans have forgiven Whites and, for the most part, do not hold it against us for what our ancestors did and some of us still do, shows Blacks and other POC have shown great sympathy towards us.
— Thanatos Sand
Not sure if this is the case. There's a ton of racial resentment--admittedly on 'both' sides these days--based upon historical grievances.
Anyway, we could wiggle and jiggle until the whole thing becomes pro-something BUT that doesn't change the fact that fighting for the enemy doesn't amount to treachery.
The inquiry is legitmate because the opposite is true. We have white people who are anti-white by supporting racial equality.
I understand who is the victim and who the perp. I don't want to downplay the great struggle of black people but it's a fact that racism has been purged from the political sphere, at least in spirit. This is an achievement. May be it didn't trickle down to the people, their attitudes and behavior, but it is illegal to discriminate by race.
Do you realize you never actually addressed my statement above, but just responded with a question?
— Thanatos Sand
I started with a question as a preamble, then proceeded with a reply to your question. We can validly assume the existence of something without being capable of answering the questions concerning that thing, which you ask. And I provided an example, gravity. Your questions are irrelevant to the point I was making.
Do you understand there is no substantial evidence a soul exists, so you have to establish or at least substantially establish that it does before accounting for how it behaves? Do you understand trying to ascertain how it must behave before doing so is particularly illogical? Do you also understand Gravity is something that can be shown to exist in the natural world while souls are not? Do you realize you never actually addressed my statement above, but just responded with a question?
So it seems the general consensus is that philosophy as a whole (including logic) is NOT considered science, not even related. Though at one time it was closely linked. But science can have its own philosophy(s). Comments?
If anyone thinks that reincarnation requires souls, then I'll remind you that millennia of Buddhists didn't and don't think so.
As I've said in a previous post here, I suggest that reincarnation doesn't require anything inconsistent with Skepticism, which doesn't assume anything.
The article I referred to earlier was a blog post in Scientific American.
There are quite a few books by Stevenson on Amazon - but no need to bother reading them, you already know what's in them, right?
In any case, for the interested reader, the point about these particular cases, is that there is 'empirical evidence', namely, children who tell these stories.
They may be different topics but they are equally ridiculous, unprovable claims. And different claims of talking to God or Satan can be unscientifically "cross-checked" just like claims of past lives. In each cases all you have are: insupportable claims.
And there has been "considerable documentation" of claims of talking to God or Satan just as there have been claims of past lives. Never have those past lives been proven. So it is as supportable and logical to dismiss claims of past lives out of hand as it is to dismiss claims of talking to God or Satan out of hand...as you do, quite hypocritically.
Research on 'children who claim to remember a previous life', is a different topic to 'people who claim to talk to God or Satan'. This is because such claims can be cross-checked against other sources, so as to ascertain whether there was a such a person, who lived and died in the circumstances the child alleges. As mentioned earlier in this thread, there is considerable documentation of such cases; anyone may dispute it, but dismissing it out of hand is something else.
Have you read anything about this research? Of are you saying that, purely because you know it's impossible that such research could reveal anything, because you class it with 'talking to God and Satan'. In other words, are you expressing an informed opinion, or simple prejudice?
What would 'evidence' consist of? As mentioned previously, there is a large amount of documentation comprising interviews with children who claim to remember previous lives. Why would that not constitute evidence, at least of continuity between one life and another? And another field is NDE research which likewise has a considerable body of documentation.
But I think it's also important to understand that such questions, insofar as they're concerned with metaphysical problems, are out of scope for the natural sciences as currently conceived, so it's problematical trying to hold statements to them to the standards of natural science.
Thanks but I have already read the discussion earlier. You'll need to reform your statement because it's unclear what is it that you want me to address.
I had came to the conclusion that you're saying solutions are not passed down genetically, which would be disproven by showing a solution that is clearly passed down genetically. Is there something so far in this paragraph I've misunderstood?
Harry Hindu
No, solutions aren't passed down genetically. Not only are actual final solutions immensely rare, they are not passed down through our genes.
— Thanatos Sand
"Is camouflage passed down? Is it not a solution to a problem? Of course there is no final solution, as the environment is dynamic."
You said the solutions were passed down genetically. I said they weren't. You still have failed to show they are. And camouflage is neither a solution for many things nor a perfect solution for one. So, my argument there is correct, too. Try to address the issue at hand.
You said the solutions were passed down genetically. I said they weren't. You still have failed to show they are. And camouflage is neither a solution for many things nor a perfect solution for one. So, my argument there is correct, too. Try to address the issue at hand.