Is it so implausible, for example, that I might be stimulated to hear a tonic-flavored dominant out of the blue, without actually having perceived a tonic beforehand? In such a way that I could not phenomenologically distinguish between these?
If so, it seems implausible to say that I experience the dominant in relation to the tonic in virtue of literally retaining the tonic in perception, rather than there just being facts about my present perception that are influenced by immediately preceding perceptions.
If we're not seeing the future, then protention is not, contrary to Husserl's claims, preception. We can of course project into the future without seeing it in any sense. This is ordinarily how we think about these things, and is not what Husserl is claiming, so far as I see it.
To make clear just how weird this is, say you're listening to a piece of music you've never heard before. You have certain expectations, perhaps, based on genre stereotypes and certain biologically or culturally ingrained notions of how music ought to proceed, involving tonality and resolution, rhythm, and so on. Let's say that you're broadly correct about which direction the piece will go: it doesn't pull a fast one on you so hard that you think 'what the hell just happened?' What is the best way to describe this situation? Did you perceive the piece as it approached, in the way you might see a truck approaching? That is, is it in virtue of the perceptible qualities of the piece that you understood what course it would take? It seems not β for you would have the same expectations regardless of whether the piece actually went that way, making the qualities of the piece itself irrelevant to your expectations and protentions. But if protention is a matter of perception, it must have been in virtue of perceiving the piece that this was possible.
Stick up for yourself! I stand by my criticisms, but you had something to say about other ways of looking at similar themes. I don't think there's anything wrong with criticism provided one is upfront about the degree to which one is familiar with what one's criticizing. That's the real bone of contention here, not that you don't like some of the guys that I like. How do you understand pomo and how do you understand it as antithetical to what you hold dear?I know I have completely de-railed this thread, I really ought to bail.
It's hard to answer this because I don't see the difference between the two alternatives. A note is not dominant in-and-of-itself, but only by relation to the tonic. The idea of tonic-colored dominant which doesn't rely on a recently heard tonic is a contradiction in terms.How does retaining the sound of a past tonic describe the hearing any more than the present perception of a tonic-colored dominant?
It would not be a very good crystal ball β maybe on the order of milliseconds, and unable to move where one looks, but yes. That is, being surprised or interrupted would have meant, on your account, that in the same way we missee an object, we can missee the future β look at it, but apprehend its properties wrong. It seems more natural to describe the future as something that can't be perceived, not something that we sometimes misperceive.
Same here, besides the Surkov bit, it was probably my favorite part of the whole movie.I particularly appreciated the way he told the story of Gaddafi. I knew most of it, but the sheer absurdity had never really hit me before.
lolAll very interesting but really nothing that wasn't said in Augustine's City Of God.
One of the things I like about Curtis's documentaries is the way he reveals the recklessness and incompetence of power, but with the thrilling style of a conspiracy theory. As far as actual conspiracies make an appearance in his narratives, it is to show that they fail or have unforeseen consequences. Nobody is running the show, though many have tried to, and the world's complexity exceeds everyone's grasp.
Which would mean that it has a kind of existence (existance?) -- it is the concept of the origin, and the sort of ideal meaning, and the notions of language, rather than all the conclusions of Husserl that are threatened. — Moliere
But take that music example. If we're listening to a piece that began with the tonic, and has moved on to the dominant - in what sense is the tonic 'there'? Certainly it's not there as a note we're presently hearing. But do we still 'hear' it as past? I don't think we do. What we hear is the dominant as colored by the tonic, whose sounding we've retained. So if it's 'there,' the tonic, it's there in a very strange way. But you seem to be using 'there' in a typical, (tho, yes, non-temporal) way as in this quote, from above:I don't think so, unless you assume to begin with that all that can be 'there' must be temporally present. (and so Derrida's favorite pun, present-present, which while evocative is not an argument). Much of what seems to be going on here looks to me like this incredulity in the face of what Husserl actually says.
Also, note the oddity that if protention is literally perceptive, this means that the future is in some sense 'there' to be seen. A disruption would have to be literally a kind of illusion, rather than a mistaken doxastic attitude, however momentary.
How can I distinguish that from living purely in a present where I simply know what to do at each (the only) moment? Put another way, perhaps protention only gains plausibility as a retrojection of disappointment and tripping and so on.
I take that quote to be saying that Derrida considers Husserl's characterization of protention/retention as perceptive as primarily a reaction against Bretano, to say that there is a kind of memory and anticipation that is quite different then recollection and reflective expectation. But if we keep the idea of perception as involving something being 'there' we lose sight of retention/protention altogether. Thus there's some equivocation with 'perception' in Husserl's account.I'm not sure what you're getting at.
!Also, note the oddity that if protention is literally perceptive, this means that the future is in some sense 'there' to be seen
At least, that's the gist I'm getting from reading -- the goal isn't so much a criticism for participating in the same metaphysical tradition in the sense that he ought not to do it, but rather, that in one case the sign is relegated to a modification of presence -- an eternal "now" outside of, or prior to, the sign, where the sign is produced as a series of exits -- but in the other case this "now" is disrupted in the sense defended in the LI as the basis for expression.
Hey, to be fair, you yourself likened the passage to madness. (couldn't help myself there, I do see where you're coming form)But inspiration is close to madness, and it's more invigorating and interesting than the sort of tedious schizophrenic deferral and linguistic games that are at play in these sorts of descriptions SX is citing
This seems pretty spot on to me. The voice isn't exhaustive of my experience, I would add, but it's definitely usually there.But very often I do not actually address myself at all, and there is simply talking inside me. There is a voice. Questioned as to its origin, I would be in no doubt that itβs my own voice, but its habitual presence in me resembles a rapid low-grade commentary without authorship, rather than any Socratic exchange between several loquacious and attentive inner selves.