Anscombe's "Modern Moral Philosophy" I'm interested. I'm up late after the superbowl with nothing to do. (background : I'm coming into the essay knowing nothing about it, and little about moral philosophy)
So to begin.
Paragraph one
Anscombe beings with three theses :
1. It's not profitable, at present, to do moral philosophy. That should be laid aside until we have an adequate philosophy of psychology.
2. The concepts of moral obligation and moral duty are atavistic - they come to us from a time when survival was of prime importance.
3. The differences between moral philosophers like Sedgwick (who I don't know) and everyone else up to the present day aren't of much importance
[commentary : When she said she had three theses, I expected them to be something different. I can't tell if they're tongue-in-cheek or not. (1) Seems to be almost behaviorist. (2) Seems to be Nietzschean (3) seems to hinge on Sedgwick, who, i don't know who is that. But it seems, more broadly, to say : the nuances of moral philosophy to this point doesn't much matter. As a whole the three theses she suggests, [i]feels[/i] to me like she's stage-setting by rhetorically playing the role of a decadent philosopher, who doesn't really understand the purpose of moral philosophy. I don't know if that's right. Maybe she means them. Have to keep reading]
Paragraph two
Difference between Aristotle's Ethics and modern moral philosophy. Aristotle doesn't seem to focus on what the moderns focus on. What we mean by 'moral' today doesn't even seem to have a place in Aristotle.
Aristotle breaks up virtues in two ways
1. Moral
2. Intellectual
Do his intellectual virtues have a moral aspect? Tentatively, yes. A failure in intellectual virtue is blameworthy, like in government. [For example, we might blame economists for the 2008 finanical crisis, in a way that is both intellectual and moral]
But we can't 'blame' someone for any sort of failure? Is being blameworthy always a moral matter? Like, what if you just program an app wrong? Is that a moral failure?
Ok, so some failures are morally blameworthy, some are not. Does Aristotle understand this distinction?If he does, why doesn't he focus more on this distinction?
Another Aristotelian distinction:
'Involuntariness in Action'
vs
Scoundrelism
A man can be blamed for the latter. [It seems like 'scoundrelism' maybe just means 'doing stuff in bad way such that you can be blamed for it']
But if we make this distinction, does it not follow that there is a moral obligation not to make certain intellectual mistakes? Next Anscombe asks [ & I don't quite follow why] Why doesn't Aristotle discuss obligation in general versus obligation in particular?]
She then goes on to do a very post-wittgenstein british thing : If anyone modern discusses Aristotle and doesn't feel like [example from daily life], they must be very imperceptive indeed.
[commentary: I think what Anscombe is trying to say is that Aristotle confuses Intellectual and moral failings, as we understand them. He runs the two together. She's not very clear on what she means, but it has something to do with blame. Presumably we think a moral failing is blameworthy, while an intellectual one is not. I think there's a lot more to unpack here. Blame and responsibility are a big topic, and I think empirically things don't filter out quite in the scheme she wants to set up, but I get her point and whatever the case may be, it's certaintly true that what Anscombe wants to talk about when she talks about morality doesn't seem to be quite what Aristotle was talking about. Whether that's a failure of Aristotle or a confusion of Anscombe is irrelevant to that fact being true.]