Whether an expression is well formed or not is irrelevant to whether it is self-contradictory, because to determine contradiction we must analyze the meaning, and this is the content, not the form. — Metaphysician Undercover
You are entirely ignorant of what contradiction is in mathematics.
Moreover, even if contradiction were, in some sense, couched semantically, then no contradiction, even in some sense of a semantic evaluation, has been shown from ZFC.
Moreover, if an expression is not grammatical, then it does not admit of semantic evaluation.
The empty set for instance, involves contradiction. — Metaphysician Undercover
"Involves contradiction" has not been given meaning by you. Either the theorem that there exists an empty set implies a contradiction or it does not. No contradiction has been shown to be derived from the theorem that there exists an empty set.
If you mean that the notion of 'set' is not compatible with a set being empty, then that just entails that your conception differs from a different conception in which there is an empty set.
Moreover, the phrase "the empty set" is not in the formal theory. Rather, there is a theorem:
E!xAy ~yex
and definition:
x=0 <-> Ay ~yex.
Moreover, even if you persisted to object to mathematicians using the informal locution 'the empty set', then mathematicians could say, "Okay, we won't say 'empty set' anymore. Instead we talk about sets and one particular object, whether it is a set or not, such that that object is the only urelement (an object that has no members), and then all these things - the sets and the urelement - are called 'zets'. So there is an empty zet." That would not alter the mathematics of set theory one bit, especially formally, and even informally except that the mouth pronounces a 'z' instead of an 's' for that one word.
So you are terribly ignorant and self-misguided in every aspect of this matter.
you have a very odd notion of what constitutes contradiction — Metaphysician Undercover
No, I have the standard logical and mathematical notion.
The law of noncontradiction states that the same object cannot both have and not have, the same property, at the same time — Metaphysician Undercover
That is one informal formulation. It is equivalent though to the standard formulation. That is:
~Ex(Fx & ~Fx)
is equivalent to
~(P & ~P).
let's say that a set is a collection of objects — Metaphysician Undercover
First, 'set' is not a primitive of set theory. An actual definition can be:
x is a class <-> (x=0 or Ey yex)
x is a proper class <-> (x is a class & ~Ey xey)
x is a urelement <-> (~x=0 & ~Ey yex)
x is a set <-> (x is a class & ~x is a proper class)
Second, even informally, you mention a certain
definition of 'set'. Mathematicians are not then obliged to refrain from having an understanding in which "collection of objects" does not preclude that it is an empty collection of objects, notwithstanding that that seems odd to people who have not studied mathematics, and so more explicitly we say, "a set is a collection, possibly empty, of objects". You are merely arrogating by fiat that your own notion and definition must the only one used by anyone else lest people with other notions and definitions are wrong. That is an intellectual error: not recognizing that definitions are provisional upon agreement of the discussants and that one is allowed to use different definitions in different contexts among different discussants. It's like someone saying "a baseball is only one such that is used in major league baseball" and not granting that someone in a different context may say, "By 'baseball' I include also balls such as used in softball". It is intellectually obnoxious not to allow that. And it is one in the deck of calling cards of cranks.