That whole line was just gaslighting. — Bylaw

Sure, it just shows your whole mental operations and judgements are based on your volatile emotions and wild imaginations rather than facts and reasons.

And if you thought it was about deduction why in goodness name did you spend so much time calling it Modus Ponens, which is deduction? And even when you finally acknowledged that it wasn't modus tollens, did you continue to write deduction symbolic logic rather than using inductive reasoning. — Bylaw

I have tried with the different methods for logical analysis, which didn't suit the cogito for a logical analysis due to the fact it being a psychological statement. So the final conclusion was throwing out cogito into the bin for being a solipsistic subjective statement which is not fit for logical analysis.

It is intended as deduction. It's not, I was thinking and hey, look I was also existing. Then I tracked many instance of thinking and existing was happening, so it's probable that they are connected causally or something like that. — Bylaw

It is a psychological statement. It is not deduction or induction. I have said that many times, but obviously you missed it.

I disagree because it's a domino effect starting from the beginning of the universe to the present. If you remove any of the dominos from the trail of dominos the chain of causation breaks. — Truth Seeker

For example, if your partner (husband or wife) cheated you, then would you say that he / she cheated because he / she was born, and had DNA for cheating? Your partner had to cheat because the cheating was done under the determinism and constraint, that he or she couldn't be faithful. Therefore, he / she is not morally culpable?

Would you not take into account the fact, and the fact only that your partner cheated you regardless of what the domino effect of the cause for the cheating was in concluding he / she is morally culpable for the cheating?

Right, which makes it once again clear that it's not an inductive argument. How are you going to make an inductive argument with no reference to any empirical observations?
4 minutes ago — flannel jesus

That is still to be discussed and concluded. I am not sure 100% that is inductive or deductive statement. To me it is not a statement. It is grammatically incorrect to begin with.

I think~ has no content, no object. We don't know what I think means.
Who is "I" there by the way?

I chose DEDUCE to mean, that we have no empirical element of observation in the statement. It was used in loose sense at the time. But here we are into the rigid meaning of Deductive and Inductive statements.

Analytic statement means that the statement itself already has its meaning, or the premises already contains the meaning of the conclusion.

Inductive statement means that both premise and conclusion are based on the empirical events or facts.

I am not sure on your answers. Where is analytic part in the statements?

See? We don't even agree on the statements were deductive or inductive, and were trying to argue if they were true.

What do you think the word "deduce" means Corvus? What relationship do you think there might be between "deduce" and "deductive logic"? — flannel jesus

Here is a question for you. Is "I think therefore I am" a deductive or inductive statement?
How about "If it rains, the ground will be wet." ????

What do you think the word "deduce" means Corvus? What relationship do you think there might be between "deduce" and "deductive logic"? — flannel jesus

I understand deduce as logical thinking from A priori or analytic concepts. Induction means that you come to logical conclusion via external empirical observations.

The poor neck-beard can't afford heating. :worry: — Banno

It must be still winter chill season in England.

I didn't make fallacious comment.
Please note this point. The internet says "It is fallacious to deny antecedent." But it is only fallacious in deductive syllogistic case. We have been talking about an inductive case. It is not fallacious to deny antecedent in inductive logic.

No probs mate. Jgill said he is not believing with this discussions keep going on here, so there must be folks thinking that we are having stupid conversation. So did I in some respect. I have not agreed with your claim I was wrong on something. I said yes to come to closure on the discussion. So, if you still want to make clear what your point was, then you better let me know about it in the private message. I will wait you there for your exact point what you think is unclear.

If you achieved what you planed to achieve, whatever it might be, I am fine with that.
There is nothing wrong for someone to be wrong. People keep learning and changing their views and ideas. If one was right on a point, that doesn't make him a teacher or the greatest philosopher in history. Important thing is, that one keeps learning and improving one's knowledge.

P->Q and Not Q -> Not P TF values is exactly the same in the truth table in one of my Logic book here. If P -> Q is false then Not Q -> Not P is false. And all the other cases are True.

No one said you were secretive. But once the points were made in the posts, you could sit and think for yourself, and get the points if your intention was to learn something. You didn't have to keep on going drumming up the crowds for claiming right or wrong on someone's idea, after all what was passing trivial comment in a post. It just feels there is very little point in the bizarre attempt of the repeating the same thing, and from learning point of view.

My point was that if the case was Deduction, then denying antecedent is fallacy (that is what internet says), but if it is Induction, then denying antecedent is not fallacy. Did you take that into consideration?

But since now you're saying it's a Fallacy, then the above quote that you agreed with can't be true. — flannel jesus

I can say anything I feel correct. Whether you agree to it or not, that doesn't make anything different. After all the whole of you point seems to be dependent on the internet searches and some other folks agreeing with you. My point is more trying to learn something in Logic. I am not really bothered if what who said was wrong or right, as long as I learn something. I am not here to prove you are right, and I am wrong, or I am right, or you are wrong. If that was your ultimate motive for privately messaging me with the point, then I am a bit disappointed with your stance. Give it a rest, and move on. There are even some folks complaining that the posts that you spew out are hurting his eyes.

So you were incorrect about that when you said that?

And then earlier in this thread you agreed with the following: — flannel jesus

I seems to be the case your whole point was not trying to find and learn something in logic, but trying to assert my one post was wrong. Is it that meaningful to you and to the rest of the world?

A good video for the thread.

No, it isn't. Truth tables are easy enough to learn, and easy to do, if you don't have too many variables.
(p=>q)=>(~p=>~q) is false when p is false and q is true. — tim wood

Well spotted Tim. I am a bit too lazy to be staring at Truth tables, and was too busy at the time, and was guessing. It depends on the TF values of p q in the table. There is nothing always.

No. You would not. Your present is the result of your past. — Truth Seeker

Should we not trace the most immediate causes for our actions? If we go too far back for accounting the causes, then we might have to go back to the big bang for as the cause for every events taken place since the start of universe. It wouldn't be very meaningful.

For my freewill to decide to drink water now instead of coffee is that because I wanted to drink water, not because my DNA was not banana's DNA, or the universe happened, or I was born.

The reason I could read your post in English was because I got email that you have replied to my post, and I decided to read it (which is the most immediate cause for the action), not because I was born, studied to read in English, didn't have DNA of banana, or the universe started 500 billion years ago.

I could have chosen not drink anything at all, or could have drank a cola, but I chose to drink water because I wanted to. I could have gone to bed instead of reading your post in English, but I decided to read it. I had my freewill at the time. Now it is past the moments, I no longer have the freewill. Those events are now under the hard determinism. But for my future and present actions, I still have my freewill to exercise as I want and desire.

Would you agree? Or is my point not quite making sense? :)

You guys need to find a bedroom. I'm surprised we others are allowed to witness the proceedings. — jgill

Was just trying to be a help for the request from FJ for clarification.

Yes, or in other words: denying the “antecedent” of a biconditional is not a fallacy. Yet denying the antecedent of a conditional is a well-known fallacy. — Leontiskos

The post seem to be in an obvious case of internet info. snack gone down into wrong pipe.
In deductive syllogism it is fallacy, but in inductive case, it is not fallacy. Because the real life case can be contradiction to the premise.

Yeah I am busy and in the middle of doing other stuff, and will have a look at it when I am free.

That's from the truth table.

Of course there are general rules for truth table and syntax rules, but for proof process, you must reason yourself for brining in the relevant inferences to the process.

(A implies B) is true, but (~B implies ~A) — flannel jesus

Even if it says True, when you compared with the real events, if they are false, then it is false. Also the premise is false.

There is no hard coded laws here. It depends on your inference and the case, and also checking with the real events in the world. The rules only says the principle. The application for finding out truth is flexible with other factors related.

If the truth table says so, yes. But compared with the reality event, it could be denied, in which case, the premise would be denied too. Proof process is for using the truth table rules, your inferences and also the reality events trying to prove that your argument was true. Some folks only cite truth table, and never allow you to make any inferences. Or they only check validity of the formulas which are not relevant. That is not logical proof.

n classical logic, A -> B being true always means ~B -> ~A is also true.

They have the same truth tables as each other. — flannel jesus

Sure, if the truth table says so, then it must be it. But in the empirical cases, you can also compare the TF values with the reality events, in which case if it is FALSE, then it proves the starting premise were FALSE.

If it rains, then ground is wet.
The ground is not wet, so it doesn't rain.

This is the case of contraposition isn't it?
It looks like it is sometimes true or sometimes not true.
Would it not depend on the checking over with the reality outside?
Did you check the truth table for it? I am not sure off hand without making up the truth table for it.

Our preferences and the resultant choices are products of hard determinism. — Truth Seeker

Could it not be your judgement which takes place always after your decisions on the choices? You are thinking them all as hard determinism, because you always reflect on them after the events, at which you cannot change them anymore from the view point of your reflections on them? Surely before the decisions, you had freewill to choose?

then accessing God would be by being that nature, your true nature, that living breathing organism. Be-ing a human creature, accepting that reality, as opposed to what we spend the vast majority of our time doing, creating our own reality becoming a human "god." — ENOAH

That sounds like Buddhism. Could it be right?

To incorporate the Abrahamic tradition, the former is the tree of life, the latter is the tree of knowledge. — ENOAH

Which sphere in the Tree of Life depicts morality?

A person sees it has not rained (~A), but then goes out to find the lawn is wet (B). This is possible because there are many ways for the lawn to get wet (B). If it rains, the lawn will be wet, but the lawn might also be wet for other reasons. — Count Timothy von Icarus

The argument was meant to prove R -> W, not (R or H) -> W.
If you wanted to prove (R or H) -> W, then yes of course, the premise should have begun with it.

For (P1 ..... Pn)-> W, you would need to go into Higher Order logic, wouldn't you?
We were trying to probe P1 -> W, but if you bringing in P31-> W, then you would be brining in irrelevant inference into the argument.

IFF must be regarded as presumed in the argument looking at the starting premise from the number of variables in the premise i.e. 1.

That would depend on the case under the proof. I will get back on that later. cheers.

Yes, it is correct. You don't need to always bring in Not A -> Not B for your inference. It is totally under your discretion of your inference for the case. It could be any case in the truth table you can bring in as your inference.

Every case in the truth value can be applied for your inference. If it helps to contrapositive for your argument, and it matches the reality event, then yes it can be adopted.

If you look closely the truth table, it only ever contains P and Q cases with various connectives and extensions. You never see in the table H -> W, once it started with P, Q. It tells you that in an argument, you don't bring in some unrelated cases and argue, the logic is incorrect. That is just sheer nonsense.

If you started with H, G in an argument, then it only have cases with H and G in the truth table. That is the rule No.1.

Ok, we are going out for a meal here. I am not sure if it is under determinism or freewill. Have a good day, and talk to you later for any other points.

In the case of If it rains the the ground will be wet. You think and infer, which will be most relevant and good to test, if it is true? Ah... how about if it doesn't rain, and the will not be wet? NotR -> NotW. And check it with the reality.

But you can bring other assumptions as counter reasonings and inferences for the proof process. If not sure, make a truth table, insert all the TF values according to the rules. Ok, Later~

It is not "lead to". It is an assumption, which you bring into the argument that you think most relevant and reasonable for the premise that you want to prove. But the truth table contains all the cases and TF values. If it is an empirical case, you must check with the reality for the TF values for the real TF values.

do you have examples where it doesn't apply? — flannel jesus

If not sure, make up an extended truth table for all the possible scenarios, and see all the cases for the TF values. It gets apparent.

I will get back on that, as I must go out now. cheers.