Militarily Russia isn't winning Ukraine, but Trump is giving Putin the biggest political support ever. — ssu

It's more than political support:

'Game changer': US reportedly threatens to revoke Ukraine's Starlink access over minerals

You didn't find any error in my argument — MoK

Yes, I did. I'm done. You seem incapable of having a rational discussion.

It was not created from something. — MoK

Then it was created from nothing, which means ex nihilo. See this.

Examined as a whole, the universe at t0 is the cause of the universe at t1. Physical throughout.
— Relativist
False. — MoK

Prove it.

We're discussing the error in your op that I exposed. Keep up.
— Relativist
Where is the error? Could you please show it to me? — MoK

I've shown you at least twice. Read through my posts.

You didn't answer my question: If not ex nihilo, then what is brain at t1 created FROM?
— Relativist
I did. I explained the creation ex nihilo. Did you get it? And the Mind creates MoK's brain at time t1. The Mind has the ability to cause/create but that requires the experience of the physical first. — MoK

Your evasiveness is frustrating. If brain at t1 was not created ex nihilo, then it was created FROM something. What is that something? Answering "not ex nihilo" is not an answer.

You seem to be unwilling to admit you were wrong when you denied
(Brain@t0 + other factors) causes (brain@t1).

Prove it.
— Relativist
Read the OP. — MoK

We're discussing the error in your op that I exposed. Keep up.

Change entails a cause for that change (per the PSR).
— Relativist
Sure, I am not against this at all. I am however arguing that physical cannot be the cause of its own change. — MoK

Examined as a whole, the universe at t0 is the cause of the universe at t1. Physical throughout.

One physical state of affairs (S1) caused another physical state of affairs (S2).
— Relativist
We assume this all the time but that is false. — MoK

Prove it.

S1 includes the potential energy in the tectonic plates that caused the tremor.
— Relativist

That is a mere change and I am not denying it at all. — MoK

Change entails a cause for that change (per the PSR).

I already agree that change in physical is because physical has properties. To establish the argument I however only need to accept that physical and awareness/experience exist and they are subject to change. Please read more — MoK

No, not unless you remove the ambiguity. If I were to do it myself and identify another problem, you could blame it on my misinterpretation.

If not ex nihilo, then what is brain at t1 created FROM? If you say "brain at t0" then we're back to (brain at t0 plus other factors) causes (brain at t1), because brain at t0 is a material cause.
If not ex nihilo, then what is brain at t1 created FROM?
— Relativist

The creation ex nihilo refers to creation when there is nothing at all but the creator, then the act of creation, and then something plus the creator. Here, I am not talking about the creation ex nihilo then. There is however an act of creation. But this act is related to the experience of the former state of physical first. So, the Mind experiences physical in the state of S1 and then creates physical in another state, S2, later. — MoK

You didn't answer my question: If not ex nihilo, then what is brain at t1 created FROM?

If you say "brain at t0" then we're back to (brain at t0 plus other factors) causes (brain at t1), because brain at t0 is a material cause.

But I was talking about the emergence of awareness which is a strong emergence. — MoK

So you don't have a problem with non-reductive physicalsim?

Prove it.
— Relativist
So you think it is a weak emergence? — MoK

I lean toward reductive physicalism. If it could be established that there is actual ontological emergence, I would accept non-reductive physicalism.

The emergence of a car: Weak or strong? The emergence of awareness: Weak or strong? — MoK

Under reductive physicalism: both are weak. Are you accepting that non-reductive physicalism has no problems?

I don't need to rephrase my argument. — MoK

You asked me to comment on your Op argument. I did. I established that the 1st premise is ambiguous. If you want further analysis, remove the ambiguity. Up to you.

Are you saying the Mind recreates MoK's brain ex nihilo at every instant of time, rather than effecting a change to MoK's brain?!
— Relativist
I already mentioned that physical including MoK's brain does not exist in the future. Therefore, physical must be created to allow a change in physical. And by creation, I don't mean the creation ex nihilo. — MoK

If not ex nihilo, then what is brain at t1 created FROM? If you say "brain at t0" then we're back to (brain at t0 plus other factors) causes (brain at t1), because brain at t0 is a material cause.

You are just claiming that change exists. That is not what I am denying. I am claiming that physical cannot be the cause of its own change. — MoK

One physical state of affairs (S1) caused another physical state of affairs (S2).

S1 includes the potential energy in the tectonic plates that caused the tremor.

I know you weren't talking about functionalism, but it IS the answer to your question - and to many other objections to physicalism.
— Relativist
If so, then why did you bring up the example of a car that is a weak emergence? — MoK

Because it was an example of a functional entity.

I am talking about the emergence of awareness which is a strong emergence. — MoK

Prove it.

Cool. Let's agree to disagree — MoK

Sure. I hope you can now recognize that your argument depends on assumptions that reasonable people can disagree about. Such is the problem with trying to prove God's existence.

I cannot prove it to you unless you understand the difference between the weak and strong emergence. — MoK

I do know the difference. Proceed with your proof.

Anything that changes is no longer the same thing. And sure, physical are subject to change since they have a set of properties..Please replace experience with awareness. — MoK

Rephrase your argument accordingly.

Then it's true that (MoK's brain at t1) is caused by (Mok's brain at t0 + other factors), because "other factors" includes mind's experience of Mok's brain at t0.
— Relativist
No, MoK's brain is directly caused by the Mind and not by MoK's brain in former time. — MoK

Are you saying the Mind recreates MoK's brain ex nihilo at every instant of time, rather than effecting a change to MoK's brain?!

P is #2 — MoK

P: the physical in the state of S1 cannot know the correct instant to cause the physical in the state of S2.
Q: Therefore, the physical in the state of S1 cannot cause the physical in the state of S2.

I proved that P does not entail Q:
S1= Rock on a ledge at to
S2= Rock on the ground at t1
Cause: tremor (there is no knowledge involved).

You had asked, "How could you accommodate awareness in physicalism?" My answer: "functionally".
— Relativist
I was not talking about the functionality of the brain which in fact can be explained by the laws of physics. I was talking about the awareness that as we agreed is a state of being conscious of perceptions, thoughts, feelings, etc. — MoK

I know you weren't talking about functionalism, but it IS the answer to your question - and to many other objections to physicalism. It means you can't simplistically deny physicalism on the basis that mental phenomena aren't exhibited by simple objects (rocks; particles). You need to consider functional entities.

I think all sorts of physicalism are false — MoK

Then let's agree to disagree. It can neither be proven nor disproven. We each draw our conclusions about it on subjective grounds. Your fundamental error is in thinking your subjective grounds are objective facts.

Then please read on the Hard Problem of consciousness — MoK

No. You're reversing the burden of proof. Provide a formal proof that physicalism is impossible, with clearly stated premises.

Then please read the OP and let me know what you think of it. — MoK

OK.

P1) Physical and experience exist and they are subject to change
Physical THINGS exist and engage in physical ACTIVITIES. Anything that changes is no longer the same thing (including any nonphysical objects that may exist). But your statement makes more sense if we treat objects as having both essential and contingent properties. Change would then entail the object's set of contingent properties changing.

"Experience" can refer to an act, or to the effect of an act. An act occurs; it is not an existent. SoI conclude you're referring to the effect: the memory.

I can't go further in your argument until you confirm or correct my interpretation.

Physicalists are wrong. The fact that the majority of philosophers believe in physicalism does not prove anything. — MoK

It implies that it is highly unlikely that physicalism is provably false.

Physicalism cannot explain the awareness — MoK

Prove it.

But you also made this seemingly contradictory statement:
MoK's brain t1 was not caused by MoK's brain at t0 + other factors.
— Relativist
No, it is not contrary at all. MoK's brain at t1 is due to MoK's brain + other factors at t0 but the MoK's brain at t1 was not caused by MoK's brain + other factors at t0. MoK's brain at t1 was caused by the Mind after experiencing MoK's brain + other factors at t0. — MoK

Then it's true that (MoK's brain at t1) is caused by (Mok's brain at t0 + other factors), because "other factors" includes mind's experience of Mok's brain at t0.

:snicker:

You need to read about the strong and weak emergence to see that the example of the car is a weak emergence whereas consciousness is a strong emergence. — MoK

You had asked, "How could you accommodate awareness in physicalism?" My answer: "functionally". I'm defending physicalism, which can either be reductive physicalism or non-reductive. The former entails epistemological emergence, the latter allows for ontological emergence.

The relevant points are:
1) I answered your question;
2) the burden is on you to prove physicalism is false;
3) an argument from lack of imagination is a fallacy.

Modus Ponens. — MoK

Here's your argument:

1. Physical however is not aware of the passage of time.
2. Therefore, the physical in the state of S1 cannot know the correct instant to cause the physical in the state of S2.
3. Therefore, the physical in the state of S1 cannot cause the physical in the state of S2.
4. Therefore, the change is not possible in physical. Therefore, physical cannot be the cause of its own change.

You said:

#3 follows from #2 only. — MoK

Modus ponens has the form:
p=>q
p
Therefore q

In your argument, what is p and what is q?

#3 follows from #2 only. — MoK

By what rule of logic? See: https://cse.iitk.ac.in/users/cs365/2012/rulesLogic.html

I am arguing that physicalism is false because it cannot explain awareness/experience — MoK

"Cannot" implies it is impossible. That's a strong claim that needs to be supported with a proof. Provide it using only mutually acceptable premises.

The reality is that you simply can't imagine how physicalism could account for awareness and m-experience. You're committing the fallacy argument from incredulity, also referred to as "argument from lack of imagination". This is the underlying problem with what you're doing, and it entails reversing the burden of proof - that I must prove to you that physicalism CAN account for something. I will accept that burden if I choose to try and make a persuasive argument for physicalism. But this is your thread, your argument, and your burden.

If you think that physicalism is not false then you have to deal with the Hard problem of consciousness, epiphenomenalism, and other problems that I discussed in detail but you didn't reply to it. You cannot resolve these problems. Could you? — MoK

I will deal with those if I choose to argue physicalism is true. In this thread, you have the burden of showing you have a coherent theory, since you put forth a proof.

Experience refers to a phenomenon that has a very clear definition in the philosophy of the mind, namely my definition. — MoK

In philosophy, "experiences" correspond to what I've defined as m-experiences. It most certainly does not entail being non-physical. Here's an extract from the definition of experience in the Blackwell Dictionary of Western Philosophy:

Experience: In philosophy,experience is generally what we perceive by the senses (sensory experience), what we learn from others, or whatever comes from external sources or from inner reflection....in philosophy, the relation between experience as a state of consciousness and independent objects of experience becomes a focus of debate. There must be something given
in experience, yet the status of the given is very controversial. Different answers respectively ground
positions such as realism, idealism, and skepticism. The different ways of understanding the given also
involve different ways of understanding the notion of sense-data. There is also debate about the relation between experience and theory.

There is no part of this that is inconsistent with physicalism. Further proof that your wrong: over 52% of phillosphers "accept or lean toward" physicalism. See this 2020 survey of philosophers. A 2009 survey had similar results

This should give you some pause in thinking physicalism is so obviously false.

I don't agree that there is p-experience or m-experience — MoK

I defined m-experience as mental experience. If you don't believe there are mental experiences then your entire line of argument is dissolved.

Functionally. Compare it to the function of a car: the parts of the car cannot function individually as a car. It is their arrangement that produces the function.
— Relativist
Now you are confusing weak and strong emergence here. — MoK

Non-sequitur, and you're ignoring that I answered your question. I regret indulging your reversal of your burden of proof.

Our brains hold memories. Beliefs are memories that dispose us to behave a certain way. Awareness is the development of short term beliefs about some state of affairs or activity, caused by our sensory input.
— Relativist
No, we already agreed on the definition of awareness which is a state in which we are conscious of mental activities, — MoK

I was indulging you by giving a physicalist ACCOUNT of awareness. The account is consistent with the defintion of awareness.

I've now concluded that I shall stop indulging you. I've given you enough to know that physicalists can account for things you didn't think possible. If you are reasonable, you'll now understand why I say you're making a fallacious argument from incredulity.

Then what caused MoK's brain at t1? There was no explanation "above". Give me an account of all the causal factors (that's what I was doing with my statement,"MoK's brain t1 was caused by [MoK's brain at t0 + other factors].
— Relativist
I already explained that to you two times if not more. The Mind causes MoK's brain at t1 given the fact that it experiences MoK's brain at t0 plus other factors — MoK

But you also made this seemingly contradictory statement:

MoK's brain t1 was not caused by MoK's brain at t0 + other factors. — MoK

Mind would qualify as "other factors". Explain this apparent contradiction. I'll defer re-asking the other related questions until you reconcile this.

I already discussed what I mean by change in OP whether the change is in a falling rock or the motion of electrons in a brain — MoK

It's an invalid argument! Here it is, with your statements numbered:

1. Physical however is not aware of the passage of time.
2. Therefore, the physical in the state of S1 cannot know the correct instant to cause the physical in the state of S2.
3. Therefore, the physical in the state of S1 cannot cause the physical in the state of S2.
4. Therefore, the change is not possible in physical. Therefore, physical cannot be the cause of its own change.

#3 does not follow from #1 and #2. Neither #1 nor #2 even mentions causation, and yet you claim to draw a conclusion ("therefore") about causation.

Your argument is just blatantly invalid.

Knowledge is not a necessary condition for causation.
— Relativist
It is necessary since a change indicates a going from one state at one point in time to another state later. — MoK

I then gave this example:

A rock dislodged from a high ledge, by a tremor, will fall to the bottom is strict accord with the gravitational law. — Relativist

Prove there is a dependency on knowledge for the rock to fall, and land when it does.

You said:

Knowledge is not a necessary condition for causation. — Relativist
It is necessary since a change indicates a going from one state at one point in time to another state later. So the knowledge of the proper time that the causation is due to, t2 in this case, is necessary. — MoK

If that's not what you meant to say, then acknowledge you were wrong in making such a general statement, and rephrase it in a way you will defend.

I am asking that if you cannot perform that task which requires the awareness of the passage of time then how the physical can do that? — MoK

First you need to acknowledge that Knowledge is not a necessary condition for causation.

You have a habit of making absurd statements, treating them as true even after they have been falsified. Here's where you made it:

Knowledge is not a necessary condition for causation. — Relativist
It is necessary since a change indicates a going from one state at one point in time to another state later. So the knowledge of the proper time that the causation is due to, t2 in this case, is necessary. — MoK

Of course, the knowledge of time is necessary. Could you perform a task that is due to a specific time without knowing the specific time or even worse without having the ability to experience time? If you cannot then how the physical can? — MoK

You gave an example that INVOLVES application of knowledge. Cause-effect due to (for example) laws of motion do not depend on knowledge. A rock dislodged from a high ledge, by a tremor, will fall to the bottom is strict accord with the gravitational law.

It is necessary since a change indicates a going from one state at one point in time to another state later. So the knowledge of the proper time that the causation is due to, t2 in this case, is necessary. — MoK

Non-sequitur. You simply re-asserted that knowledge is necessary. A law of nature necessitates an effect. Causation is temporal.

Therefore, the physical in the state of S1 cannot know the correct instant to cause the physical in the state of S2. Therefore, the physical in the state of S1 cannot cause the physical in the state of S2. — MoK

Knowledge is not a necessary condition for causation.

. I agree that the experience or awareness precludes physicalism given my definition of experience. — MoK

So your "proof" that physicalism is false is based on the assumption that physicalism is false. Circular reasoning.

You may believe physicalism is false because you can't imagine how it can account for some phenomenon, but that is not a proof. I don't care what you believe, so I have no burden to explain or defend physicalism. I know physicalism to be coherent and to be more explanatorially complete than alternatives, and this is sufficient basis for me to reject your argument. I have no burden to prove this to you. You assumed a burden by posting an argument that you presumably think should have the power to persuade. If your argument depends on your unproven assumption that physicalism is false, you should add that as a premise to your argument.

I cannot agree with your definition of np-experience, m-experience, and p-experience since to me there is only one sort of experience that I equate to awareness. — MoK

You asked me this:

Please call a set of processes in the brain another thing — MoK

That's what I did. The definitions refer to concepts. Accepting the definitions doesn't commit you to agreeing the concept applies to anything in reality. The difference among the 3 concepts are the nature of our disagreement. Based on those 3 concepts, our disagreement is about whether m-experiences are np-experiences or p-experiences. The definition you gave entails ASSUMING m-experiences are np-experiences. If you don't accept the burden to prove this, then your argument fails because it is circular.

I equate experience to awareness. It was your misuse of terms that caused us all trouble. You define experience as the process in physical. The experience as I mentioned is related to another phenomenon that has a clear definition in the philosophy of the mind. — MoK

I didn't misuse terms. I made it clear in my first post that the definition of experience was relevant, and I subsequently rejected your definition because it assumed, not proved, that experiences were non-physical. The discussion did get confusing because we hadn't agreed to a definition. I've addressed this by defining the 3 concepts. If you aren't willing to accept the possibility that m-experiences are p-experiences, then the discussion is at an end because your reasoning is circular.

I'll clarify one point: to say m-experiences are p-experiences means that m-experiences are due to physical processes, and thus consistent with physicalism. I'm not reifying an abstract description. You are greatly mistaken if you think physicalist philosopher's of mind would accept your definition.

How could you accommodate awareness in physicalism considering the basic ingredients of any objects, electrons, quarks, etc. are unaware? — MoK

Functionally. Compare it to the function of a car: the parts of the car cannot function individually as a car. It is their arrangement that produces the function.

Our brains hold memories. Beliefs are memories that dispose us to behave a certain way. Awareness is the development of short term beliefs about some state of affairs or activity, caused by our sensory input.

I am not evading at all. I am talking about problems that cannot be addressed in physicalism — MoK

You're ignoring the context of this part of the discussion. You had given an incoherent account of the mind-body relationship. This is fatal to your argument. You presented this argument in your op, which gives you the burden to defend it. If you can't show that account is coherent, you've failed - irrespective of whether or not physicalism is true.

I anticipate that you're strategy is to make an argument from ignorance: find a reason to reject physicalism, and then conclude "...therefore dualism must be true". No, you have to show you have a superior alternative. An incoherent theory is not superior. You DENY that it's incoherent, but you haven't been able to address my objections.
— Relativist
Please see above. — MoK

So you aren't denying that you're making an argument from ignorance.

You seemed to agree that MoK's brain t1 was caused by (MoK's brain at t0 + other factors). The question is: is the mind one of those other factors. Please answer it. I anticipate that either answer will contradict something you've already said, but we'll see. After you've shown your theory is coherent, then we can further discuss your issues with physicalism.
— Relativist
MoK's brain t1 was not caused by MoK's brain at t0 + other factors. Please see above. — MoK

Then what caused MoK's brain at t1? There was no explanation "above". Give me an account of all the causal factors (that's what I was doing with my statement,"MoK's brain t1 was caused by [MoK's brain at t0 + other factors].

Musk dreams may soon come true. In a 2023 interview by Steve Bannon, soon-to-be FBI director Kash Patel said this; "We’re going to come after the people in the media who lied about American citizens, who helped Joe Biden rig presidential elections. Whether it’s criminally or civilly, we’ll figure that out.”

https://www.nbcnews.com/politics/donald-trump/kash-patel-said-come-journalists-now-hangs-fbi-candidacy-rcna182661

This article goes through Trump's recent lies about Ukraine: Fact check: Trump’s barrage of lies about Zelensky and Ukraine

"[Trump]said Tuesday: “I think Europe has given $100 billion and we’ve given, let’s say, $300-plus (billion).” He wrote Wednesday: “The United States has spent $200 Billion Dollars more than Europe.”
Reality: wartime military, financial and humanitarian aid to Ukraine through December:
Europe- $258 billion committed; $148 billion allocated
US- $124 billion committed; $119 billion allocated.

Trump: "Zelensky has a 4% approval rating"
Actual: 52-57%

In the Wednesday social media post, Trump falsely claimed that Zelensky “admits that half of the money we sent him is ‘MISSING.’”
Zelensky has made no such admission...He said in a February 1 interview with the Associated Press that although people talk about Ukraine getting as much as $200 billion in US aid, Ukraine had received about $76 billion, largely in the form of weapons. Zelensky said he doesn’t know where all the professed additional money has gone and that perhaps these higher figures are correct “on paper,”

, I was seven during the Cuban Missile Crisis, — Wayfarer

I had a feeling you were younger than me! I was 8 in Oct 1962.

Subjective judgement, but why don't you start a thread describing your metaphysical theory so we can judge its feasibility.

I was referring to the argument in the Op (I referred to an "alleged proof). Regarding your arguments, you haven't proven physicalism is impossible - and it being POSSIBLE is the only thing I've been defending.

In which case, what are we talking about? I'm arguing against physicalist views that your posts are representing, only for you to say 'well, I'm not really advocating them.' — Wayfarer

I explained several posts ago:

I absolutely am not trying to convince you physicalism is true. This thread was about an alleged proof that physicalism is false. I've been explaining why the argument fails. That doesn't entail proving physicalism is true; it entails establishing that it is possible — Relativist

Nothing I've said contradicts that. — Wayfarer

I was responded to your suggesting I had not demonstrated physicalism was coherent, because I hadn't accounted for things like meaning. You felt my previous comment about semantics was insufficient, so I expanded on that.

The rest of your comments seems to be justification for what you believe, not really showing my theory is incoherent. I already explained I'm not trying to prove either that you are wrong, or that physicalism is true.

Whereas it is commonly believed that the physical basis of mind is understood, when it is not. — Wayfarer

Not one neuroscientist or philosopher of mind makes that claim! Rather, physicalists seek to account for the uncontroversial facts in a way consistent with physicalism. All this can do is show that physicalism is possible. In the context of physicalism, that's sufficient - because every other uncontroversial fact is unarguably a natural fact.

But the fact is, were human minds not able to form and grasp foundational concepts, such as 'equals', it would be impossible for us to learn and practice arithmetic, let alone mathematics. It is an ability the human mind alone has. — Wayfarer

So what? Uniqueness doesn't imply physicalism is false.

That is not an adequate account of the power of reason. Mathematical regularities and symmetries are far more than repetitive patterns. Reason has enabled us to estimate the age and size of the Universe. — Wayfarer

You previously said that referring to "semantics" was inadequate to account for meaning. Then when I went into more detail, it made no difference. I'm not going to indulge you again. I've accounted for basic reason; that's a building block. You seem to expect a complete neurolgical framework, seemingly because "it is commonly believed that the physical basis of mind is understood".

The question is: can you identify any uncontroversial fact about mental activity that you can prove impossible under physicalism?

I have not challenged your view, so there's no need to continue to justify it.

I just received an email from Social Security

"On National Slam the Scam Day and throughout the year, we give you the tools to recognize Social Security-related scams and stop scammers from stealing your money and personal information. 

Help protect your loved ones and people in your community this Slam the Scam Day by: 

Learning about the latest scams. Information can empower you to quickly recognize a scam. Signs of a scam include:
An unexpected problem or offer of a prize or benefit increase..."

Pressure to act immediately, and
A request for an unusual payment like cryptocurrency, gift cards, gold bars, and wire transfers...

@NOS4A2 must be outraged at this censorship of free speech! Surly scammers have a right to say whatever they want.

I didn't mean to insult you at all. I am very sorry if my words hurt your feelings but I didn't intend to do so. When I ask you what is the experience you answer that as a set of processes in the brain. Please call a set of processes in the brain another thing since the experience refers to another phenomenon I tried my best to explain it to you but you constantly denied it. When I discuss whether Rock experience as well, then you changed experience in the case of the brain to mental experience — MoK

In all cases I was simply responding to you. In my very first post, I brought up the issue of how "experience" is defined, noting that one COULD define it in a way that included a boulder rolling down the mountain. You later seemed to want to limit the discussion to MENTAL experiences, so at that time I began focusing solely on mental experiences. But you defined mental experiences as non-physical, which precludes physicalism with a definition.

I'm fine with applying different terms to mental experiences (m-experiences) and non-mental experiences (nm-experiences). Let's also define non-physical experiences (np-experiences), because you are claiming that m-experiences=np-experiences. Your burden is to show this is necessarily the case.

My contention is that there are no np-experiences, because physicalism can account for m-experiences just fine. You put forth an argument that entails physicalism being false, so you have the burden to show that it is impossible for physicalism to be true. You would presumably do that by proving there are np-experiences.

To me, awareness refers to a state in which we are conscious of mental activities, such as perceptions, thoughts, feelings, etc. — MoK

Agreed. I hope you can recognize that it would have been easier if you had simply said that in the first place, instead of asking.

That is true that MoK's brain at time t is related to Mok's brain at time t-1 plus other factors but that does not mean that MoK's brain at time t-1 plus other factors causes MoK's brain at time t. ...
1) The Hard Problem of consciousness, 2) Epiphenomenalism,
...These issues if not more are serious threats to physicalism. — MoK

You're deflecting. This part of the discussion dealt with your theory of mind, which I pointed out seemed incoherent.

I anticipate that you're strategy is to make an argument from ignorance: find a reason to reject physicalism, and then conclude "...therefore dualism must be true". No, you have to show you have a superior alternative. An incoherent theory is not superior. You DENY that it's incoherent, but you haven't been able to address my objections.

You seemed to agree that MoK's brain @t1 was caused by (MoK's brain at t0 + other factors). The question is: is the mind one of those other factors. Please answer it. I anticipate that either answer will contradict something you've already said, but we'll see. After you've shown your theory is coherent, then we can further discuss your issues with physicalism.

You're right, Trump is irrational. A better characterization is that he rationalizes some of the things he does.

Re: Nato, he has already de facto left it. He will never authorize US forces to defend an ally. Violating the NATO treaty is as easy as violating trade treaties. In the meantime, he could draw down US forces stationed in Europe and maintain a facade of membership to avoid much domestic heat.

Re: Trump-Putin, Trump is Putin's useful idiot. I'm not sure what you mean by Putin "crushing" us. He feels he can successfully compete in a world that ignores moral values and in which what is considered "true" is malleable. That's a pretty strong competitive advantage.

Here's the entirety of Trump's post on Tuesday, rationalizing his becoming aligned with Putin:

"Think of it, a modestly successful comedian, Volodymyr Zelenskyy, talked the United States of America into spending $350 Billion Dollars, to go into a War that couldn’t be won, that never had to start, but a War that he, without the U.S. and “TRUMP,” will never be able to settle. The United States has spent $200 Billion Dollars more than Europe, and Europe’s money is guaranteed, while the United States will get nothing back. Why didn’t Sleepy Joe Biden demand Equalization, in that this War is far more important to Europe than it is to us — We have a big, beautiful Ocean as separation. On top of this, Zelenskyy admits that half of the money we sent him is “MISSING.” He refuses to have Elections, is very low in Ukrainian Polls, and the only thing he was good at was playing Biden “like a fiddle.” A Dictator without Elections, Zelenskyy better move fast or he is not going to have a Country left. In the meantime, we are successfully negotiating an end to the War with Russia, something all admit only “TRUMP,” and the Trump Administration, can do. Biden never tried, Europe has failed to bring Peace, and Zelenskyy probably wants to keep the “gravy train” going. I love Ukraine, but Zelenskyy has done a terrible job, his Country is shattered, and MILLIONS have unnecessarily died – And so it continues….."

For the most part, Trump isn't being irrational here, he's simply being amoral, valuing only money. He believes profits will be maximized by supporting Putin. Although blaming Ukraine for failing to give Putin everything he wanted is bonkers.