A description of what it means to avoid conflict. One area where I'd disagree is that the conflict that is avoided is not wiped away as trivial, but it is avoided precisely because it's seen as critical and unresolvable. I appreciate this description might be my own neurosis, but it's nonetheless personally truthful. That is to say, if you are very leftist and I'm not, we could get along quite well as long as we made our dispute a trivial part of our relationship. That is, we must declare not to personally care about that difference because it isn't trivial. It's critical, and if we allow it to remain in the forefront of our interaction, we are not be able to get along. — Hanover
I dated a very liberal woman once, and I told her that nothing she believed offended me, that she was entitled to all she believed, and I even truthfully stated to her that I liked it that she held passionate views, despite I disagreed with her in very large part. And she had trouble with me, saying she had trouble divorcing her personal opinions from our relationship, although she finally came to terms with it. The challenge was hers far more than mine because I have no problem avoiding conflict. She did. God did she (but that's another story). — Hanover
I've always liked "50 Shades of Cthulhu." Ol' Lovecraft was way ahead of his time.
And maybe that's the real solution, which is just to admit an incompatibility when you realize that your sensitivities don't match up. That is not a "let's all get along" attitude though, but more of an admission you don't get each other, where the sensitive person is always feeling wronged and the less than sensitive guy feels like he's always having to apologize.
But, it does abandon the idea that one side is more right than the other, with it being no more correct to yell "bully" as it is to yell "pussy." As long as both have the ability to successfully interact in their own worlds apart from each other without conflict, then maybe that's the safe place to stay.
For better of for worse, this is the most stressful thread I've ever participated in. A conversation about patterns of conversations. Every post is both part of the conversation and also an object to be talked about as example within the conversation....ahhhh
What I mean is that sometimes lovers are equal partners dealing with the business of life. At other times one lover wants to show off and be admired by the other ('I'll be the child and you be the impressed parent.') Of course the unpleasant stuff is one partner trying to parent the other oppressive. Or trying to play the child when the partner is in the mood either for adult-adult conversation or are themselves impatient to be the adored child.
Boy. This is hard to read. I'm trying to think of myself in similar situations. The only times I can remember having a reaction similar to what you're describing is the contempt I have sometimes felt for people, usually boys or men, acting, being weak, vulnerable, pitiful. Thinking back, it's probably always boys or men. Not a good feeling. Looking back on it from many years in the future, I came to realize my feelings of contempt happened because I recognized the same weakness in myself. It was shame. Is that what you're describing, or is it something else? Is it purely social behavior - something you do with a group of friends - or would you do it when it was just you?
I think you nailed it. I know this contempt. It's all their in the word 'pussy,' which in a crude vocabulary serves as both the primary kind of sinner and the officially sanctioned object of desire. A rough theory would be that men repress their vulnerability and find it again at a safe distance in a woman (in the heterosexual case.) He is the shell. She is the shameful but delicious goo inside.
I appreciate this, fdrake. I have been bullied. I am quiet and small in stature and he was a very big man and profoundly aggressive and because I did not respond to his sexual advances he resorted to true authentic cruelty. It was horrible being a joke to them because my humanity was taken away from me and those who followed him and believed in him appeared as though they were allowed to treat me that way. That laughter at the so-called 'weakness' is pretty shocking.
The worst part about it was that I thought he was a good person, I really wanted to believe it.
I think we could give examples for both the bad and the good to humour, so I am unsure how to proceed. Are you suggesting that perhaps humour is too ambiguous because it is an oversimplification?
Totally agree. Modes. I think in sexual relationships this fluidity is especially evident.
The laughter evoked by non-humorous jokes underlined by a passive-aggressive hostility or Othering can be amusing to bullies; when I think of this young girl who was taunted by several men, they found it funny and it evoked laughter, yet it is clearly not humour. Humour is ambiguous because it can reflect several different conditions and even then to categorise can be an oversimplification. So, I look at humour from a functional angle rather than attempting to ascertain why we find some things humorous and see that playfulness is an important part of human cognition and can bring us joy. — Timeline
This is not humour, though, not authentically where people are laughing mutually and are being playful.
I laugh because I don't need to feel.
Let's not forget humour (what counteracts depression) and positive relationships between people either, otherwise culture deteriorates and we would live within a mechanistic environment where responses are without quality of character. You breed weakness on both ends of the spectrum, so it is about achieving the balance between the two.
Those who think that thought merely 'reflects' the real in a 'transcendental' sense (w/r/t Laruelle use of the term 'transcendental' - a use, btw, which bothers me to no end), miss precisely this power of thought, it's introduction of novelty into the world in which it thinks about.
'A concept is a brick. It can be used to build a courthouse of reason. Or it can be thrown through the window.'
But then I'm always tempted to ask: who actually thinks that philosophy functions in the way Laruelle does? Who - apart from maybe Hegel - will say 'My system covers everything, even the (its?) negative!'. I mean yeah, there are some nameless idiots here who walk around with blinders so strong that they don't even realize they're wearing them, but generally if you press people they'll acknowledge that at best they're working with a series of intuition pumps or attempts at framing things so as to bring out relevant features of the world (or of specific situations), and so on. I mean, this is just what thinking is: you make a distinction, and then you attempt to reason on the basis of that distinction. The alternative is that you get interminably bogged down arguing about 'the system', and I can't imagine anything more philosophically anemic.
Look around.
I think here you may inadvertently be granting the point more power. A [pair of like objects] is definitely a type, but as you say, there are no types in general. It's exactly for this reason that I don't think we can generalize from the conditions under which monkeys can identify pairs of objects (qua pairs of objects) to a broader set of necessary conditions for identifying any type.
The ouroboric effect you refer to, an effect of 'thought being indifferent to the things it is thinking about' is I think precisely the desideratum of a materialist conception of thought. It means that the very form of thought is not sanctioned by some kind of 'pre-established harmony' between that form - always indifferent to the real - and the real itself. At best, it is just a kind of machinery that gets put to work in this way and that way, such that the real is always 'autonomous' (read: indifferent) with respect to thought. This kind of approach is what - I think - Laruelle and his cabal of 'non-philosophers' are always going on about, but I can't be sure.
It is the defining characteristic of philosophy, of the principle of sufficient philosophy,
and its unitary will, to believe that all use of language is ultimately philosophical, sooner or later. Philosophy, which I characterize as a "unitary" mode of thought, cannot imagine for a single instant that there are language can be used in two ways: there is the use of language in science, which is not at all philosophical, contrary to what philosophy itself postulates in order to establish itself as a fundamental ontology or epistemology of science; and the use of language in philosophy. Philosophy postulates that every use of language is a use with a view to the logos or that which I call a use-of-the-logos, language being taken as constitutive of the being of things. From this point of view, if there were the only possible us of language, then obviously, there is no question of escaping from philosophy. But I postulate – in reality I do not postulate, since I begin by taking them as indissociably given from the outset, the bloc of real as One and a certain use of language which corresponds to this particular conception of the real. Since I take as indissociably given from the outset a certain use of language, which is not that of the logos, and the One that founds it, I do not contradict myself, I do not relapse into philosophical contradiction. Philosophy has a very deeply ingrained fetishism, which is
obviously that of metaphysics but which may not be entirely destroyed by the philosophical critiques of metaphysics; and this is the ultimate belief that ultimately every use of language is carried out with a view to being, in order to grant being, or to open being, etc., that every usage of language is "positional".
Having rejected the Kantian position that our sensations are caused by an unknowable object that exists independently of us, Schopenhauer notes importantly that our body — which is just one among the many objects in the world — is given to us in two different ways: we perceive our body as a physical object among other physical objects, subject to the natural laws that govern the movements of all physical objects, and we are aware of our body through our immediate awareness, as we each consciously inhabit our body, intentionally move it, and feel directly our pleasures, pains, and emotional states. We can objectively perceive our hand as an external object, as a surgeon might perceive it during a medical operation, and we can also be subjectively aware of our hand as something we inhabit, as something we willfully move, and of which we can feel its inner muscular workings.
From this observation, Schopenhauer asserts that among all the objects in the universe, there is only one object, relative to each of us — namely, our physical body — that is given in two entirely different ways. It is given as representation (i.e., objectively; externally) and as Will (i.e., subjectively; internally). One of his notable conclusions is that when we move our hand, this is not to be comprehended as a motivational act that first happens, and then causes the movement of our hand as an effect. He maintains that the movement of our hand is but a single act — again, like the two sides of a coin — that has a subjective feeling of willing as one of its aspects, and the movement of the hand as the other. More generally, he adds that the action of the body is nothing but the act of Will objectified, that is, translated into perception.
To me, making moral decisions is pretty simple.
I don't often need a lot of deep thought to decide what's right and what's wrong
Pretty much agree. That the universe is a mathematical structure (and is not merely modeled by one) is not new. The latter half seems to be what I've been exploring, and one which I have not necessarily seen litterature, let alone even a name for the stance.
This is a key concept, demonstrating why objective ontology (or lack of it) makes no difference in the relations between different parts of the same structure.
A curious thing about the ontological problem is its simplicity. It can be put in three Anglo-Saxon monosyllables: ‘What is there?’ It can be answered, moreover, in a word—‘Everything’—and everyone will accept this answer as true. However, this is merely to say that there is what there is. There remains room for disagreement over cases; and so the issue has stayed alive down the centuries.
That appeal to equivalence classes again looks like it demands something we've just said we can't have, real ideals, real types to ground the equivalence, and that backing off to our practices instead is no help. My suspicion is that it does help because the project of communal living gives you a choice: provisionally deem someone to be speaking a language you can understand or give up.
I'd say that yes, those are examples of natural kinds. As Frege would say, they have all passed the "acid test" of concepts, namely their fruitfulness.
I have the opposite idea. I think the semantics of mathematical kind terms is very similar to the semantics Kripke-Putnam sketched for scientific natural kind terms, in the sense that mathematical kind terms are (primarily) non-descriptive, i.e. their semantic value is their reference. That is why we can say that Euler and Cauchy were mistaken in (e.g.) treating convergence as uniform convergence (yes, I'm aware that the historical debate here is controversial). So, according to my story, it's not that we started with fuzzy, open-texture concepts and proceeded to precisify them; rather, we started with a collection of examples and proceeded to unveil their structure. Of course, this story needs to fleshed out, and fleshing it out is one of the projects on which I'm currently working
I strongly disagree with this statement. I actually think the opposite is true: by paying attention to the history of mathematical concepts, we see that they emerged not because we "made it just so", but were rather forced on us by the nature of the entities in question and the problems surrounding them. To my mind, mathematical entities form natural kinds, and the most fruitful mathematical definitions (such as continuity) capture the structure of those kinds.
How do you represent the property of "for every e>0 there is d such that for every x if |x-a| < d then |f(x) - f(a)| < e
“But (which for us here suffices) they continually approach more closely to
the required ratio, in such a way that at length the difference becomes less than any
assignable quantity”
