• Locke's Enquiry, Innateness, and Teleology
    Incidentally I happened upon a good definition of teleology in a video by neuroscientist Lisa Feldman Barrett, which defines it as 'an explanation of phenomena in terms of the purpose which they serve rather than the cause by which they arise.'
  • Locke's Enquiry, Innateness, and Teleology
    Agree with you. If you re-frame the innate ideas as innate capacities then much of the problem goes away. Humans may not be born with an innate grasp of the LEM but they are born with the capacity to grasp it, which is brought forth by education. Same for language which humans uniquely possess. The fact that some humans are mute or disabled doesn’t vitiate that.

    I think what the empiricists such as Locke took issue with are universals which were supposed by scholastic philosophy to be grasped by reason which is unique to man and in some sense innate to the soul. But even if humans do uniquely possess that capacity to reason it must be brought to fruition by education (the root word of which means ‘to bring forth’). But aside from that, it’s obvious that individuals are born with innate capacities, if not fully-formed ideas, then at least the ability to produce them. Look at child musical prodigies, for heaven’s sake. Or math prodigies like Terry Tao. Plainly something innate there the lack of which no amount of ‘experience’ will substitute for. (Maybe the slave boy in the Meno was one such, and Socrates got lucky!)

    And besides all that, Kant clearly demonstrated the shortcoming of Locke’s ‘tabula rasa’ in his reply to Hume.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    As far as I can tell. It’s a lynchpin of Schopenhauer’s philosophy. (I also wonder if it was an inspiration for Freud’s libido theory?)
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    Also that’s S not K
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    It’s the double-aspect point of one’s own body - that on the one hand it’s an object to us but on the other it’s the only thing we’re subjectively aware of. Still getting my head around that.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    People weren't put on trial for heresy, but people in the natural sciences were hounded out of their careers or threatened with this fate for violating the established orthodoxy.Count Timothy von Icarus

    This was a cartoon of Thomas Nagel post publication of Mind and Cosmos and its critique of neo-Darwinist orthodoxy


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    What can be said at all can be said
    clearly; and whereof one cannot speak thereof one must be silent.
    — TLP Intro

    Well, and apropos of the comparisons of Wittgenstein and Buddhism, consider this example of an apophatic teaching from the Pali texts. 'The wanderer Vacchagotta' is a figure in these texts who customarily raises philosophical questions. Here the Buddha maintains 'a noble silence' to a question to which neither 'yes' or 'no' hits the mark.

    Then the wanderer Vacchagotta went to the Blessed One and, on arrival, exchanged courteous greetings with him. After an exchange of friendly greetings & courtesies, he sat to one side. As he was sitting there he asked the Blessed One: "Now then, Venerable Gotama, is there a self?"

    When this was said, the Blessed One was silent.

    "Then is there no self?"

    A second time, the Blessed One was silent.

    Then Vacchagotta the wanderer got up from his seat and left.

    Think also of the many instances of aporia in the dialogues of Plato. There, the participants are wrestling with difficult, and often insoluble questions, which frequently don't come to a conclusion. There are hints, maybes, 'could be's' and so on. Maybe Wittgenstein is saying 'now go off and wrestle with them. Don't try and wrap them up in nice neat syllogisms and repeating dogmas that you really don't understand.'

    The book will, therefore, draw a limit to thinking, or rather not to
    thinking, but to the expression of thoughts; for, in order to draw a limit
    to thinking we should have to be able to think both sides of this limit
    (we should therefore have to be able to think what cannot be thought).
    — TLP Intro

    The limits, or rather limitations, of discursive thinking are likewise well understood in esoteric traditions. e.g. The Twilight Language, by Rod Bucknell, 'the notion of "twilight language" is a supposed polysemic language and communication system associated with tantric traditions. It includes visual communication, verbal communication and nonverbal communication.'

    More to all this than meets the ‘I’.
  • Aristotle's Metaphysics
    But if happiness (eudomonia) consists in activity in accordance with virtue, it is reasonable that it should be activity in accordance with the highest virtue; and this will be the virtue of the best part of us. Whether then this be the Intellect (nous), or whatever else it be that is thought to rule and lead us by nature, and to have cognizance of what is noble and divine, either as being itself also actually divine, or as being relatively the divinest part of us, it is the activity of this part of us in accordance with the virtue proper to it that will constitute perfect happiness; and it has been stated already* that this activity is the activity of contemplation — Nichomachean Ethics 7. 1. (1177a11)
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    I'm not a Schopenhauer scholar...Gnomon

    All his works are freely available online. Granted, a fair amount of reading, but the World as Will and Representation Vol 1 is a good start. In respect of the nature of the will, and why everything should be seen as its manifestation, read the paragraphs beginning here. Not easy reading, but then which of the German idealist were?
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    This makes Wittgenstein sound like a neutral figure regarding how to use language, but it is clear he favored (in Tractatus) empirical claims to "Facts of the world" over language that he thought could (SHOULD) not be expressed (nonsense)..schopenhauer1

    But (and forgive my fragmentary knowledge of the text) I had rather thought that the final sections of the Tractatus (from about 6.371 on) were conclusions of the work as a whole. The Vienna Circle positivists interpreted them to support their contention that metaphysics is nonsensical, but Wittgenstein never attended their meetings or expressed support for them. As another review mentions - and this one was originally published by the British Wittgenstein Association, so is bona fide:

    The declared aim of the Vienna Circle was to make philosophy either subservient to or somehow akin to the natural sciences. As Ray Monk says in his superb biography Ludwig Wittgenstein: The Duty of Genius (1990), “the anti-metaphysical stance that united them [was] the basis for a kind of manifesto which was published under the title The Scientific View of the World: The Vienna Circle.” Yet as Wittgenstein himself protested again and again in the Tractatus, the propositions of natural science “have nothing to do with philosophy” (6.53); “Philosophy is not one of the natural sciences” (4.111); “It is not problems of natural science which have to be solved” (6.4312); “even if all possible scientific questions be answered, the problems of life have still not been touched at all” (6.52); “There is indeed the inexpressible. This shows itself; it is the mystical” (6.522). None of these sayings could possibly be interpreted as the views of a man who had renounced metaphysics. The Logical Positivists of the Vienna Circle had got Wittgenstein wrong, and in so doing had discredited themselves.

    The phrases I've often pointed to in that concluding section were these:

    6.4.1 The meaning of the world must lie outside of it. In the world everything is as it is and everything happens as it happens; there is no value in it - and if there were, it would have no value.

    If there is a value that has value, it must lie outside everything that happens and is. Because everything that happens and exists is accidental.

    What makes it non-random cannot be in the world, otherwise it would be random again.

    It must be outside the world.

    And that is metaphysics as a matter of definition, as is the nearby (6.4312) 'The solution to the riddle of life in space and time lies outside of space and time.'

    Of course, this leads directly to section 7, which are the famous last words: Whereof one can not speak, thereof one must be silent. And that is the phrase which is often invoked to dismiss what is considered to be metaphysically speculative.

    This is Wittgenstein's mystical side ('However, there are unspeakable things. This shows itself, it is the mystical.') I see it as a form of apophaticism, the via negativa, albeit expressed in a non-religious idiom, unlike the traditional form, which was expressed in the idiom of pre-modern theology. in 6.53 he says:

    The correct method of philosophy would actually be this: to say nothing other than what can be said, i.e. propositions of natural science - something that has nothing to do with philosophy - and then whenever someone else wanted to say something metaphysical, to prove it to him that he gave no meaning to certain characters in his sentences. This method would be unsatisfactory for the other person - he would not have the feeling that we were teaching him philosophy - but it would be the only strictly correct one.

    Presumably, this is the section the logical positivists seized on to support their scientism. But they overlook the significance of what cannot be said. It's beyond reason, not irrational, and there's a world of difference. The point of this whole section, seems to me, is to arrive at a kind of apophatic silence, to realise what is beyond words. I thoroughly appreciate that, but it is easily misunderstood, seems to me.
  • ChatGPT 4 Answers Philosophical Questions
    Hey Sam - this current mini-documentary came up in my feed today. I follow this channel, he produces a lot of first-rate content on technology and business matters. Have a look at this one for some of the features and ramifications of GPT 4o.

  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    I get that. Speaking as one whose musings are often deprecated or ignored by analytic philosophers, I don't feel a sense of resentment or exclusion on that account - it’s a matter of diverging philosophical interests, which one has to accept in a pluralistic world. But then, I do sense the fact that many of the ‘analyticals’ are really pretty rigid in their concentration on ‘language games’ and the like and they often use the famous last words of the Tractatus to stifle discussion of what I consider significant philosophical questions. But, you know, c’est la vie. One moves on to another thread.
  • What do you reckon of Philosophy Stack Exchange ?
    My only activities in philosophy have been online since I discovered forums around 2009 (aside from 2 years of under-graduate studies back in the day). I found PSE during that time and just thought of it as another forum, although as noted it’s rather more specific.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    I think key to the 'noumena' issue is Kant's criticism of the rationalists including Liebniz and Descartes, both of whom believed the existence of God could be proven by rational principles. A major part of his critique is in criticizing the legitimacy of those kinds of ideas (on the one side, but also of the empirical philosophers on the other, who claimed knowledge comes from sense-experience alone.)

    Kant argued that as a matter of principle we can't know what is beyond the bounds of sense and reason, which God by definition is (although elsewhere he also 'made room for faith' as he saw a necessity for God as the ground of practical reason and ethics). But much of his discussion of 'noumena' and 'ding-an-sich' (which are not the same but often confused with each other) is set against that background.

    I think interminable confusion results from trying to figure out what 'noumenal' or 'ding-an-sich' really means, or is. It's like trying to peek behind the curtain, so to speak. Whereas, according to this primer on Kant,

    Kant's introduced the concept of the “thing in itself” to refer to reality as it is independent of our experience of it and unstructured by our cognitive constitution. The concept was harshly criticized in his own time and has been lambasted by generations of critics since. A standard objection to the notion is that Kant has no business positing it, given his insistence that we can only know what lies within the limits of possible experience. But a more sympathetic reading is to see the concept of the “thing in itself” as a sort of placeholder in Kant's system; it both marks the limits of what we can know and expresses a sense of mystery that cannot be dissolved, the sense of mystery that underlies our unanswerable questions. Through both of these functions it serves to keep us humble.

    Viewed in that light, and resisting the urge to 'peek behind', I think it's quite a reasonable idea.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    The guy who does the Great Courses' modern phil survey course makes this point. He is talking about Hegel, but the two were contemporaries and even taught across the hall from one another for a period. He says Hegel was the last great philosopher in terms of creating an all encompassing system (aesthetics, ethics, politics, metaphysics, epistemology, etc.)Count Timothy von Icarus

    It's well-known that Schopenhauer despised Hegel (and didn't hold too many of the other German philosophers of his day in high regard either.) I agree with Schopenhauer that Hegel was extremely verbose. I feel that German idealism collapsed under the weight of its own verbosity and obscurity but that Schopenhauer's reputation has endured, because of the relative brevity and style of his writing. (I know that Schelling and Hegel each have a following but they're really confined to the ivory tower, don't you think?)

    If noumena are mediated reality, why do we have phenomena? We know….theoretically…..what phenomena are mediated by, re: sensation, but what mediates noumena when we don’t even know what a noumenon would be? And whatever it may be, it certainly isn’t a sensation for us.Mww

    In traditional (pre-modern) philosophy, wasn't it the case that 'intelligible objects' were known immediately, i.e. knowledge of them was unmediated by sense? That when you know an arithmetical principle or proof, you 'see' it in a way that you can't see a sense-object? They are "higher" in the sense of being immediately grasped, rather than intermediated by the senses. Isn't that the gist of the 'eye of reason' in the Platonic tradition? (I'm writing here from a more pre-Kantian perspective.)
  • Aristotle's Metaphysics
    Between these statements he questions whether such knowledge is appropriate for human beings. It is divine knowledge, both in the sense that it is knowledge of the divine as cause and knowledge that a god alone or most of all would have. Above the entryway to the temple of Apollo are inscribed the words "know thyself". One way in which this was understood is that man should know his place. He is not a god and does not possess knowledge of the gods in the double sense of knowing the gods and knowing what the gods know.Fooloso4

    The book I'm currently reading points to the origin of metaphysics, with Parmenides 'prose-poem', saying that after the introductory section, written in first person, the substance of the remainder is indeed given to Parmenides by the Goddess:

    Since the rest of the poem is presented as the speech of the Goddess, this grasp of the whole is received as a gift, a revelation from the divine. The very first full-fledged metaphysician in the western tradition, then, experiences his understanding of being in religious terms, as an encounter with divinity. It is no surprise, therefore, that, according to the Goddess, the road Parmenides takes “is outside the tread of men” (B 1.27). Thus the Goddess draws a sharp distinction between “the untrembling heart of well-rounded truth” on the one hand, and “the opinions of mortals” on the other. The implication is that truth, as distinct from mere human seeming, is divine. We may be reminded of Heraclitus’ dictum, “Human character does not have insights, divine has”. — Eric D. Perl, Thinking Being, p13

    But 'divine inspiration' is also central in Plato. In the Phaedrus, Plato discusses the soul’s journey and the role of divine madness in achieving true insight and wisdom. This divine madness is considered a form of inspiration from the gods, enabling the soul to recollect the Forms and the ultimate truths of existence. In the Symposium, Plato also emphasizes the role of the divine in the pursuit of wisdom through Diotima’s ladder of love, which ultimately leads to the contemplation of the Form of Beauty, a divine and eternal truth.

    Later Neoplatonists like Plotinus and Proclus build upon Plato’s ideas, emphasizing the One or the Good as a transcendent source of all reality. Their interpretations, deeply rooted in Plato’s works, highlight the divine and mystical dimensions of his philosophy. These were to have considerable influence on the formation of Christian theology (and are nowadays deprecated on that account, I would contend). Whereas much contemporary philosophy, with its naturalistic and generally materialistic tendencies, tends to reinterpret ancient texts to fit modern frameworks.
  • What do you reckon of Philosophy Stack Exchange ?
    I've posted a number of threads there over the years. They're a much tougher bunch of reviewers than here, and it's very strictly moderated. The idea is, you go there to ask questions and elicit answers, NOT to engage in the kind of free-wheeling debates that we have here (if the back and forth yields a debate, it is split off into a different, 'chat room', format, which I've never pursued). But if I have specific questions I will sometimes raise them there (for example).

    //oh, and I have also used StackExchange for IT-related questions, principally SharePoint.
  • Quantifier Variance, Ontological Pluralism, and Other Fun Stuff
    I'm not one of the people making these analogies, but I don't see any harm in distinguishing "how to play chess" from "why to play chess" or even from "why to play this game of chess this way." I can belabor the point if you'd like.Srap Tasmaner

    I recently watched a lecture on evolutionary neuroscience, which included a striking slide at 7:13 defining teleology as 'the explanation of phenomena in terms of the purpose they serve rather than the cause by which they arise.' I found this definition marvelously succinct.

    In the context of your analogy, distinguishing between "how to play chess" and "why play it?" is indeed relevant, albeit obliquely, to the broader issue of quantifier variability. The question of "how to play" presupposes the existence of the game. In a culture unfamiliar with chess, the question of "why play it?" must be addressed first, if only to find someone else to play with. Chess is an artificially constrained experience with a definite aim—winning. However, real philosophical questions are not so constrained.

    In chess, the existential quantifier is tied to the game's rules and objectives, which provides an implicit purpose. In real life, existence encompasses a broader and more varied range of possibilities and outcomes, without the clear constraints of a game, and with the existence of a purpose being harder to discern.

    Thus, using chess as an analogy for existential questions might constrain our understanding in ways that don't necessarily apply to real life. This is the sense in which chess is a poor analogy for the question of different kinds of existence, as I understand 'quantifier variability'.

    Am I getting it?
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    I would put it that some people have particular interests in philosophy, and so take Wittgenstein as pointless or trivialAntony Nickles

    Maybe inadvertently, I think this helps make the point, as that is the reciprocal of how their interests are regarded by him.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    We’ve come to expect not a single original thought is possible. Listen for the propaganda, repeat it like a mantra until it’s true by sheer repetition. Rinse and repeat.NOS4A2

    At last! A confession.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    While it is true we think in images, as soon as we present to ourselves a representation of a triangle in general, it is a particular instance of a universal idea. In no other way than by means of principles, is it possible to think things in general, the backbone of pure transcendental cognitions.Mww

    Thanks for your elucidations, they're helpful.

    is therefore the most ultimate reality for S the Will? Or is there a Being of all Beings which is merely manifesting as the Will?ENOAH

    See this blog post. It's not directly about Schopenhauer, but some of his near-contemporaries, grappling with the division between phenomena/noumena posed by Kant:

    Hegel and Schleiermacher thought that Kant had missed something important—namely, that the self which experiences the world is also a part of the world it is experiencing. Rather than there being this sharp divide between the experiencing subject and things-in-themselves, with phenomena emerging at the point of interface, the experiencing subject is a thing-in-itself. It is noumenal—or, put another way, the self that experiences the world is part of the ultimate reality that lies behind experience.

    So: the self that has experiences is a noumenal reality. Both Schleiermacher and Hegel believed that this fact could be made use of, so that somehow the self could serve as a wedge to pry open a doorway through the wall of mystery, into an understanding of reality as it is in itself. ...

    ... Schleiermacher dealt with this conundrum by privileging a distinct mode of self-consciousness, one in which all attempts to make the self into an object of consciousness—that is, all attempts to come to know the self—are set aside. When the self is made an object of study it becomes a phenomenon, and as such is divorced from the noumenal self. But it is possible to simply be—to become quiescent, if you will, and simply be what one is rather than attempt to know what one is.

    And in this place of cognitive stillness, one discovers in a direct experiential way an ultimate reality that cannot be conceptualized or made into an object of study. This is the domain of mystical experience—and even though it is ineffable (that is, even if it cannot be made into an object of knowledge) it brings with it a kind of insight or enlightenment. One may not be able to adequately put this experience into propositional terms that can be affirmed as true, but that doesn’t mean one hasn’t in some sense encountered noumenal reality. One hasn’t encountered it as an object of experience (since that would turn it into a phenomenon). Rather, one encounters it in the way one experiences.

    The challenge, then, is to attempt to articulate this encounter in a way that is meaningful to us--in other words, in a way that our cognitive minds can grasp and affirm. The encounter itself is what Schleiermacher calls “religion.”
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    Can you cite any passages from Aristotle, Plato, or Parmenides or the scholastics that explicitly equate thinking with being?Janus

    I provided a link to the .pdf of that book (which incidentally is out of print and was very expensive when available.) As the title of the book is Thinking Being, then one might surmise that it explores the very question you're asking, so I will refer you to it, as it is practically impossible to present a synopsis in a forum post, especially as it is tangential to the thread topic.

    In Thinking Being, Eric Perl articulates central ideas and arguments regarding the nature of reality in Parmenides, Plato, Aristotle, Plotinus, and Aquinas. He shows that, throughout this tradition, these ideas proceed from and return to the indissoluble togetherness of thought and being, first clearly expressed by Parmenides. The emphasis throughout is on continuity rather than opposition: Aristotle appears as a follower of Plato in identifying being as intelligible form, and Aquinas as a follower of Plotinus in locating the first principle “beyond being”. Hence Neoplatonism, itself a coherent development of Platonic thought, comes to be seen as the mainstream of classical philosophy. Perl’s book thus contributes to a revisionist understanding of the fundamental outlines of the western tradition in metaphysics.abstract
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    This is arguably because, before the modern sciences of optics and visual perception, the eyes were thought to be the 'windows' through which the soul looked out onto the world, so there would have been no notion of "distortion" which may be posited in relation to the senses as they are now understood.Janus

    But the basis of traditional metaphysics was 'the identity of thinking and being' (per Eric D. Perl, Thinking Being: Introduction to Metaphysics in the Classical Tradition.) And that in turn relied on Parmenides' metaphysics inherited and transformed by Plato and Aristotle. It was still apparent in Aquinas, whereby the intellect receives the forms whilst the senses perceive the material body. Thereby particulars are perceived as beings which are the expressions of an idea or form or principle. There is no way that can be equated with naive realism.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    There is this weird myth that pre-modern philosophers were naive realists, or even a backwards projection of positivist notions of "objectivity," on to them. I don't think this could be further from the truth.Count Timothy von Icarus

    :100: :clap:
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    Wittgenstein's significance is at least in part a sign of the times. In the olden days, there was a relatively unified worldview or set of shared beliefs against which controversies and disputes were conducted. But now there is no consensus at all about every fundamental aspect of existence, apart from various implications of what science seems to be telling us - which as Wittgenstein said, have no bearing on 'the problems of life'. Set against that confusion, Wittgenstein is presented as a beacon of clarity.

    'Yes, but...' will come the reply.

    Wittgenstein, especially the later Wittgenstein, viewed philosophy as it had been practiced more or less up his own arrival as mostly a budget of confusions. Philosophical problems and "theories" one and all arise, he says at one point in the Philosophical Investigations, from language gone on a holiday. The rough idea is that a whole lot of philosophy gets going by taking terms like say "knowledge" or "mind" or "idea" or -- take your pick -- and raising questions that have nothing to do with our sort of everyday use of such terms in the context of the "language games" in which they are at home.

    Take the so-called problem of other minds. How does this problem get started? Well, Descartes convinced many philosophers that we have immediate and incorrigible access to the contents of our own minds, as if the mind were somehow completely open to itself. It's clear we don't in the same way know the contents of the minds of others. Starting with that observation, it really wouldn't take much argument to get yourself into the frame of thinking that one can reasonably and intelligibly wonder whether we have anyway of knowing about the minds of others. And once you got yourself into that state of wonder, it wouldn't take a whole lot of further argument to convince yourself to be an utter sceptic about our knowledge of other minds. Of course, at least some other philosophers will be unmoved by your scepticism. They may take themselves to be the guardians of common sense. But as soon as they admit that your arguments at least deserve answering, that there really is a problem about our knowledge of other minds, then we're off and running on a race to see which set of philosophical arguments will carry the day. Sceptical arguments will war with anti-sceptical arguments. the debate will go on -- probably interminably, with no real resolution ever being achieved.

    We philosophers tend to think of our problems as "enduring." But the Wittgensteinian thought is that that may just be another way of saying intractable, however. And Wittgenstein can be seen as offering us an explanation of why we find the problems so intractable. That's the point of his saying that philosophical problems arise when language goes on holiday. This is not for him a sign that the problems of philosophy are deep. It is rather a sign that they are grounded in utter confusion and abuse of language.

    Now I won't try to reconstruct the arguments that might lead one down the primrose path of worrying about our knowledge of other minds. I'll leave that as exercise to the reader for now. What Wittgenstein wants to do for philosophy is to give us a way of avoiding taking even the very first step down such paths in the first place. The secret, he thinks, is simply to look at how we actually use such terms as 'knowledge' 'self' 'others' etc in the real life language games and "forms of life" in which those terms are at home. Philosophy should simply stick to describing use. It should abandon the grand hope of building philosophical theories of things like mind, knowledge and self. It has no particular resources for enabling it to construct such theories in the first place. And all of its past attempts to do so have led to intractable confusion.

    Once we abandon the urge to build grand philosophical theories designed to get at, as it were, hidden philosophical essences, and simply look at how language is actually used, it's not so much that we thereby solve the traditional philosophical problems, It's rather that we dissolve them. If we simply look at our actual practices, we will see that the idea that we know the contents of our own minds in some immediate, incorrigible fashion that is different from the way in which we we know the minds of others cannot be sustained. The very problem that gets the whole intractable debate about our knowledge of self vs. our knowledge of other minds is based again on "language gone on a holiday." And once you see this, the problem immediately dissolves itself.

    There's something profound about Wittgenstein's approach. Not without reason did generations of later philosophers find it a potent rallying cry. It's certainly true that we want to pay attention to how our language is actually used and we don't want, through mere inattention to the facts of use, to generate pseudo problems. But I have to say that I think it is a serious mistake to think that all the so-called traditional problems of philosophy are mere pseudo-problems borne of insufficient attention to how we actually use certain quite ordinary terms, that, in their everyday use, are completely unproblematic.
    Kenneth Taylor, Why I am Not a Wittgensteinian

    As for the 'intractable confusion' that this post refers to, I'm not sure that this accurately describes every advocate for the various schools of philosophy being referred to. They might believe that their school of thought is crystal clear.

    'Yes, but....'
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    And I find it interesting that "Facts" and "State of Affairs" are just taken as givens, thus stated.. As if you make your sentences stark enough, you can make statements of metaphysics that can be the exception... Because it is just a skeleton "showing" you.. duh! Unlike YOU, Wayfarer, with your overrought metaphysical constructs. Go kick rocks bud! Come back when you want to discuss the FACTS.schopenhauer1

    As you can probably guess, my approach is very much shaped by 'history of ideas' as much as philosophy per se. I'm interested in the dialectics of modernity and how the modern worldview emerged. That's more characteristic of comparative religion and continental philosophy than English-speaking philosophy. (My first degree was in comparative religion, after one of my philosophy lecturers took me aside and kindly advised me that I wouldn't find what I was looking for in his department.)

    I think @Tom Storm's mention of the Ray Monk bio of Wittgenstein is probably a good starting point for the casual reader. Also a magazine article by him, Wittgenstein's Forgotten Lesson.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    No, it's a real parallel. You will notice that I linked a google search in my remarks, have a look. I think Wittgenstein correct with his sense that we're generally confused, but it's by a great deal more than just 'language', it runs a lot deeper than that.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    I would question whether this is a particularly helpful or good faith way to pose the question.Count Timothy von Icarus

    Agree that the OP title could have been worded more tactfully. But I see the point.

    I've often noticed that philosophical ideas I want to discuss are smothered by Wittgenstein's admonition the last line of the TLP, 'that of which we cannot speak'. I've been accused in the last day of 'saying things that shouldn't be said', in my (probably clumsy) attempts at understanding classical metaphysics.

    “My propositions serve as elucidations in the following way: anyone who understands me eventually recognizes them as nonsensical when he has used them — as steps — to climb beyond them. (He must, so to speak, throw away the ladder after he has climbed up it.) He must transcend these propositions, and then he will see the world aright.” ~ WittgensteinFire Ologist

    There has been quite a bit written on the theme of Wittgenstein and Zen Buddhism often citing this passage. The comparison from the Buddhist texts is the 'parable of the raft', in which the Buddha compares his teaching to a raft 'of twigs and branches', bound together to aid one's crossing of the 'river of suffering', but not carried about or extolled after 'the river is crossed'. It's an exact parallel. But then, Buddhism is explicitly a religious philosophy not only studied and read in philosophy departments, although it might also be that.

    I've casually perused the Tractatus, but much of the formal logical notation is over my head and I don't have sufficient interest to make the effort to learn it. But the mystical aphorisms towards the end of the work always resonated with me, although they're generally regarded as things one ought not to speak of.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    If noumena are instances of direct reality, why is it there is never an example of a noumenal object?Mww

    You know that Schopenhauer criticized Kant's use of the term 'noumenal', right? According to a passage in World as Will and Idea:

    The difference between abstract and intuitive cognition, which Kant entirely overlooks, was the very one that ancient philosophers indicated as φαινόμενα [phainomena] and νοούμενα [nooumena]; the opposition and incommensurability between these terms proved very productive in the philosophemes of the Eleatics, in Plato's doctrine of Ideas, in the dialectic of the Megarics, and later in the scholastics, in the conflict between nominalism and realism. This latter conflict was the late development of a seed already present in the opposed tendencies of Plato and Aristotle. But Kant, who completely and irresponsibly neglected the issue for which the terms φαινομένα and νοούμενα were already in use, then took possession of the terms as if they were stray and ownerless, and used them as designations of things in themselves and their appearances.

    The Wikipedia entry on Noumenon, from which that is copied, also says

    The Greek word νοούμενoν, nooúmenon (plural νοούμενα, nooúmena) is the neuter middle-passive present participle of νοεῖν, noeîn, 'to think, to mean', which in turn originates from the word νοῦς, noûs, an Attic contracted form of νόος, nóos, 'perception, understanding, mind'. A rough equivalent in English would be "that which is thought", or "the object of an act of thought".

    So, from that, I would have surmised that the ideas, in the Platonic and Aristotelian sense, might be regarded as 'noumenal objects' insofar as they're apprehended directly by intellect. Lloyd Gerson says in his essay Platonism and Naturalism:

    in thinking, the intelligible object or form is present in the intellect, and thinking itself is the identification of the intellect with this intelligible. ...Thinking is not something that is, in principle, like sensing or perceiving; this is because thinking is a universalising activity. This is what this means: when you think, you see - mentally see - a form which could not, in principle, be identical with a particular - including a particular neurological element, a circuit, or a state of a circuit, or a synapse, and so on. This is so because the object of thinking is universal, or the mind is operating universally.

    A related comment from Ed Feser:

    Consider that when you think about triangularity, as you might when proving a geometrical theorem, it is necessarily perfect triangularity that you are contemplating, not some mere approximation of it. Triangularity as your intellect grasps it is entirely determinate or exact; for example, what you grasp is the notion of a closed plane figure with three perfectly straight sides, rather than that of something which may or may not have straight sides or which may or may not be closed. Of course, your mental image of a triangle might not be exact, but rather indeterminate and fuzzy. But to grasp something with the intellect is not the same as to form a mental image of it. For any mental image of a triangle is necessarily going to be of an isosceles triangle specifically, or of a scalene one, or an equilateral one; but the concept of triangularity that your intellect grasps applies to all triangles alike. Any mental image of a triangle is going to have certain features, such as a particular color, that are no part of the concept of triangularity in general. A mental image is something private and subjective, while the concept of triangularity is objective and grasped by many minds at once.Edward Feser

    Now, I know these are all very knotty philosophical problems, in no way am I trying to resolve them. It's just that it seems to me that 'noumenon' as 'intelligible objects' in the sense of those two quotations make sense to me, but that does not seem to be what Kant meant by the term, as Schopenhauer said. I sometimes wonder if Kant put too much emphasis on the necessity of empirical validation, as there are whole fields, such as pure mathematics, which seem to me to constitute real knowledge, but which are not empirically realised.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    I think that’s about right.
    //
    What I’ve read about Schopenhauer’s influence on Freud is that both he and Kant anticipated the discovery of the unconscious.
  • Currently Reading
    You’re welcome.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    If not Will for Schopenhauer, then what would he have "equated" with, say, Brahman or whatever stage of Buddhist translations' version of Tathagatagharba(?), or even Spinoza's Monism/God? What would Schopenhauer call that? Or is it utterly absent and there is only will and Representation, and will is not a being but a drive?ENOAH

    They're difficult questions, but I'd be careful about reification. Buddhanature is not any kind of entity or thing, but the latent capacity for enlightenment. Perhaps more like a 'principle'. Buddhism in particular is very sensitive to 'objectification'. So, 'will is not a being but a drive' is much nearer the mark.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    He's not saying this law is a feature of the universe, it's a feature of thought. We can't think beyond it, so it's like a signpost of the border of thought.frank

    That is along the same lines as the 'critical reflection' in the SEP entry that I mention above. But I'd say, it's deeper than a feature of thought, it is inextricably part of organic life, as all living things strive to survive (although only humans come along and ask why.)

    definitely he (Schop.) places suffering in the category of the real being, and unlike Buddhism, not in the category of Maya/Samsara/Karma. That is, suffering for S. is not restricted to the "illusions" but also Buddha Nature (if that and S's "will" are similarly the ground of real being).ENOAH

    I'd be very careful at this point. First, 'Buddhanature' was not something S. ever would have encountered even despite what knowledge of Buddhism he had, as it is part of a set of Buddhist doctrines that weren't translated until much later. Second, look again at the reply to S1 above, from the SEP entry on Schopenhauer. It suggests he's not really positing 'Will' as a philosophical absolute, as a kind of 'blind God' (which sounds more like H P Lovecraft :yikes: ) but more as an inevitable condition of existence, something that drives living beings to continually crave to exist and to continue, without their really understanding why.

    Without getting into all the intricacies of Buddhist philosophy, which are considerable, one of the basic formulations is called the 'chain of dependent origination' (Pratītyasamutpāda), shared by all schools. The driving factors are ignorance, greed and hatred (depicted iconographically as a rooster, pig and snake chasing each other in a circle). So ignorance is what causes beings to be born in the realm of Saṃsāra (with the caveat that in Mahāyāna Buddhism, the bodhisattva may be voluntarily born out of compassion for the sake of suffering beings). But ignorance has no intrinsic reality. And that actually converges (oddly enough) with a religious teaching associated with Augustine, 'evil as privation of the good' - in the same way that illness is simply the absence of health, or a hole the absence of ground, evil or ignorance has no intrinsic being, although it appears totally real to those afflicted by it.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    Have another look at #7 of the SEP entry.. I think it addresses that question. The emphasis on will is 'less of an outlook derived from an absolute standpoint that transcends human nature and as more of an outlook expressive of human nature in its effort to achieve philosophical understanding .... It can be understood alternatively as an expression of the human perspective on the world, that, as an embodied individual, we typically cannot avoid. This tempered approach, though, does leave us with the decisive question of why the world would appear to be so violent, if the universe’s core is not thoroughly “Will,” but is also something mysterious beyond this.'

    Perhaps the gist is that his is a perspectival approach - from the human perspective, the world appears 'as will', but to those who have 'gone beyond', it is something else.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    In the Wikipedia entry on higher consciousness I belatedly linked to my last entry, there's this snippet:

    The better consciousness in me lifts me into a world where there is no longer personality and causality or subject or object. My hope and my belief is that this better (supersensible and extra-temporal) consciousness will become my only one, and for that reason I hope that it is not God. But if anyone wants to use the expression God symbolically for the better consciousness itself or for much that we are able to separate or name, so let it be, yet not among philosophers I would have thought. — Schopenhauer
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    This is getting very esoteric, but can it be argued that Schopenhauer's famous "denial of Will", is actually a sort of existence of unmediated existence?schopenhauer1

    This is where I think Schopenhauer was disadvantaged by not having encountered an adept or guru of the Eastern paths he admired (of course in his day and age that would have been very unlikely given geography and history.) I think Schopenhauer intuited that there was a state of the 'cessation of suffering', which he said was exemplified St Francis and other ascetics, but I don't know if he really reached those states (and who does?) In Urs App's book Schopenhauer's Compass, there's a whole chapter on what Schopenhauer describes as 'better consciousness' (apparently what we would call higher consciousness) so again, he was very much aware of that in a way that most later philosophers were not. But Zen teachers will demand going far beyond just a kind of theoretical grasp and it takes considerable training to truly integrate that understanding. Schopenhauer was a perceptive philosopher, but not, in Eastern parlance, a 'realised being'.

    See also
    Schopenhauer and Buddhism
    Peter Abelsen

    Philosophy East and West
    Vol. 43, No. 2 (Apr., 1993), pp. 255-278 (24 pages)
    Published By: University of Hawai'i Press
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    Where below am I naive or inconsistent?ENOAH

    Not necessarily either, but the subtleties of these subjects are such that they resist compression to a schematic. Understanding what exactly Plato intended by 'ideas' or 'forms' is quite a difficult task in its own right, and Kant is infamously difficult to read.

    One analogy I've found for Schopenhauer's 'will' is the Buddhist 'tannha' (craving or thirst). I got ChatGPT to summarize this comparison which can be viewed below:

    Reveal
    Schopenhauer's 'Will'
    For Schopenhauer, the 'will' is the fundamental reality, an irrational, blind force that manifests itself in all living beings. It is the source of all desires and actions, and it perpetuates the cycle of striving and suffering. Schopenhauer's 'will' is not a personal or individual will but a universal force that drives all phenomena. His pessimistic view holds that the endless striving of the will is the root of suffering, and liberation can be attained by negating the will through asceticism and denial of desires.

    Buddhist 'Tṛṣṇā' (or 'Taṇhā')
    In Buddhism, 'tṛṣṇā' or 'taṇhā' (Pāli) is often translated as 'thirst,' 'craving,' or 'desire.' It is identified as the second of the Four Noble Truths and is considered the origin of suffering (dukkha). 'Tṛṣṇā' refers to the insatiable craving for sensory pleasures, existence, and non-existence, which leads to the cycle of birth, death, and rebirth (saṃsāra). Overcoming 'tṛṣṇā' through the practice of the Noble Eightfold Path leads to the cessation of suffering (nirvāṇa).

    Comparative Analysis
    Similarities:

    Source of Suffering: Both Schopenhauer's 'will' and the Buddhist 'tṛṣṇā' are seen as the root causes of suffering and the continuous cycle of existence.
    Nature of Desire: Both concepts emphasize the relentless and insatiable nature of desire, leading to perpetual dissatisfaction and striving.
    Goal of Liberation: Schopenhauer and Buddhism both propose that liberation from suffering involves overcoming the driving force of desire. For Schopenhauer, this is through the negation of the will, while in Buddhism, it is through the elimination of craving and the attainment of nirvāṇa.

    Differences:

    Metaphysical Foundation: Schopenhauer's metaphysics is rooted in a form of philosophical idealism, where the 'will' is a metaphysical principle underlying all phenomena. Buddhism, on the other hand, does not posit a metaphysical will but focuses on the psychological and phenomenological aspects of craving and its cessation.

    Path to Liberation: Schopenhauer emphasizes asceticism and the denial of individual will as a path to liberation. Buddhism prescribes a specific ethical and meditative path (the Noble Eightfold Path) to eliminate craving and achieve enlightenment.
    Ultimate Reality: Schopenhauer's ultimate reality is the will, which one must negate, while in Buddhism, the ultimate reality is the cessation of suffering and the realization of the nature of existence (dependent origination and emptiness).

    Scholarly Exploration

    Scholars have delved into these comparisons in various works. For instance:

    Bryan Magee discusses the parallels between Schopenhauer and Eastern thought in his book "The Philosophy of Schopenhauer."

    Urs App explores Schopenhauer's engagement with Eastern texts and ideas in "Schopenhauer's Compass: An Introduction to Schopenhauer’s Philosophy and its Origins."

    D.T. Suzuki and other scholars of comparative philosophy have also noted the resonances between Schopenhauer's ideas and Buddhist thought, particularly in the context of suffering and desire.

    These comparisons underscore the significant cross-cultural philosophical dialogues that have shaped modern understandings of desire, suffering, and liberation.
  • Quantifier Variance, Ontological Pluralism, and Other Fun Stuff
    (There is a connection between Wittgenstein and the issue I mentioned earlier in the respect of the decline of scholastic realism and Aristotelian philosophy. As David Bentley Hart put it, the pre-modern Cosmos was viewed as an intrinsically purposeful and ordered whole comprising interconnected rational relationships. The Aristotelian aitia are commonly translated as "causes" but are quite different from the homogeneous material causes of the mechanistic philosophy, entailing a purpose for every particular (somewhat related to the later 'principle of sufficient reason'). Thus, it was believed that the natural order was already real and comparable to intelligence and that intellect was the most concentrated and brilliant reflection of nature's most fundamental essence rather than an odd resident of a foreign realm. Nominalism and theological voluntarism, which stressed the complete independence and unknowability of the Divine Will, dismantled this rationalist worldview and replaced it with a mechanical universe and a deist God. Not that Wittgenstein appealed to that directly, but that it provided the background, hence also his mysticism and the disconnection he diagnosed between facts and the transcendent realm of ethics and aesthetics.)
  • The Idea That Changed Europe
    ditto with the classics. But with this qualification: they are all long dead and long gone.tim wood

    One of the reasons they're still read is obviously because they were judged to have enduring value, and the fact that they have been preserved for millenia attests to that. (Presumably there were many minor and lesser writings that were not so preserved.) But I do get that to really understand (for example) Plato's corpus, you would have to read them in the original, so as to grasp all of the allusions and subtleties of the language. But then, it's a difficult field of scholarship, due both to the difficulties of the source texts, and also that they have been subject to centuries of commentary.

    I've been attracted to Lloyd Gerson's books, and also those of a classics scholar Katya Vogt, but their books are very hard to read. They contain very lengthy and detailed footnotes and devote a great deal of time to defending their interpretation against others, ancient and modern, which introduce many intricacies of interpretation and arcane arguments replete with passages in Greek which of course I don't understand.

    But, I do agree with the points you've made above, about assimilating the ideas from these texts, indeed that's why I made the remark at the outset. Also I've noticed this series from Princeton Press which makes available many classic texts.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    From the SEP entry:

    According to Schopenhauer, corresponding to the level of the universal subject-object distinction, Will is immediately objectified into a set of universal objects or Platonic Ideas. These constitute the timeless patterns for each of the individual things that we experience in space and time. There are different Platonic Ideas, and although this multiplicity of Ideas implies that some measure of individuation is present within this realm, each Idea nonetheless contains no plurality within itself and is said to be “one.” Since the Platonic Ideas are in neither space nor time, they lack the qualities of individuation that would follow from the introduction of spatial and temporal qualifications. In these respects, the Platonic Ideas are independent of the specific fourfold root of the principle of sufficient reason, even though it would be misleading to say that there is no individuation whatsoever at this universal level, for there are many different Platonic Ideas. Schopenhauer refers to the Platonic Ideas as the direct objectifications of Will and as the immediate objectivity of Will.
    '
    I recall from Kastrup's discussion of the Ideas, that they are like modes of vibration, similar to the way that when a guitar string is plucked, it will emanate a specific note, due to the tension of the string etc. There's a sense in which the ideas as archetypes represent the possibilities of things - that if something is to exist, it has to take a certain form - but that 'form' is not something that exists separately in the supposed 'ethereal realm'. In that sense the ideas transcend existence. They are kind of like a combination of necessity and possibility (ref.) And in this respect there are continuities with neoplatonism and the 'grand tradition' generally i.e. The Ideas are like intermediaries between the One and the individual. However in Schopenhauer will is 'irrational and blind' whereas in neoplatonism the nature of the One is beneficient and purposive.

    But then as the SEP also notes in respect of Schop's ethics, 'Moral consciousness and virtue thus give way to the voluntary poverty and chastity of the ascetic. St. Francis of Assisi (WWR, Section 68) and Jesus (WWR, Section 70) subsequently emerge as Schopenhauer’s prototypes for the most enlightened lifestyle, in conjunction with the ascetics from every religious tradition.' I find this paradoxical, not to say contradictory, aspect of Schopenhauer a bit confounding. On the one hand, he wrote ascerbic diatribes against all religion, but on the other, he seems to recognise the Upaniṣads and the 'life of Jesus' as kind of ideals. I think he had some kind of conflict around these issues - which I well understand, given the highly conflicted nature of religion in European history.

    All in all, his writing on 'representation' and the ideas, I find highly amenable, but not so much his conception of the all-powerful will. I'm still dubious about those aspects of Schopenhauer, but as we all agree, he's a substantial figure in philosophy, and I'll continue to think it over.