• Vervaeke-Henriques 'Transcendent Naturalism'
    Gallagher offers that Varela’s incorporation of buddhist themes of mindfulness gives enactivism a way to make skilled coping about more than cleverness. We can see it instead as directed by an ethical knowhow that achieves a benevolent posture through the giving up of egoistic habits of grasping. The awareness of the no self within the self leads to a compassionate stance toward others. This seems to be where spirituality comes into play for Varela and Thompson, and it illustrates how the progress of a science can come around to affirming what the spiritual disciplines knew.Joshs

    Beautifully said thank you.
  • Vervaeke-Henriques 'Transcendent Naturalism'
    Thanks for the affirmation! on both counts.

    Hope you dont log out too soon.Joshs

    I keep saying I will, but then, as Michael Corleone put it....

    And that project you're working on sound fascinating.

    Meanwhile I'm going to work through Vervaeke's original series - it's the kind of material you can listen to on walks or driving, and I'm doing a fair amount of both. I'm not 'fixating' on him or anything, it's just that he's got a real 'integral' approach, and he's very learned. He's kind of doing what Ken Wilber tried to do, but Wilber was always an outsider to the academy.
  • Aristotle's Metaphysics
    "As it happens, the very first post I entered on the predecessor forum to this one, was about what I now understand to be Platonic realism, i.e. that abstracta (in that case numbers), are real but not materially existent. I've discussed and debated the issue many times but I find that it's neither well understood nor widely supported - principally because it is obviously incompatible with physicalism.
    — Wayfarer

    This is very interesting...

    I've heard a line of reasoning that reminds me of this....I think it might have been Searle? Well, regardless...they made a case that there are things that are:

    1. Epistemically objective
    2. Epistemically subjective

    3. Ontologically objective
    4. Ontologically subjective

    Something could be ontologically subjective which has a different mode of existence than ontologically objective things. But, this is not to say that they cannot also be epistemically objective.
    013zen

    'Objective' always tends to mean 'mind independent'. 'Subjective' tends to mean 'in the mind, mind dependent.' It seems natural to depict it this way as we see ourselves as subjects in a domain of objects.

    But what this doesn't see, is the sense in which the objective realm is also mind-dependent. And that comes into relief when you consider things like the role of mathematics in physics and science generally. On the one hand, the phenomena of the natural sciences are independent of observation - they continue to exist independently of being observed. But on the other hand, in order to analyse them and incorporate them in theory, we are highly dependent on theoretical constructs which in some important sense (as Einstein said) dictate what it is we are seeing. The distinction which seems so clear-cut, is not actually so, because we're not actually outside of or apart from the world that natural science seeks to know. That has become evident in science in the observer problem in physics, but it's also manifest in many of the analyses of philosophy of science.

    So, I wonder if real numbers are either subjective or objective. I mean, they're not to be found anywhere in the world, as such. Nor are they products of the mind, as they are the same for all who can count. That is the sense in which 'intelligible objects' are transcendent - they transcend the subject/object division. And not seeing that is part of the consequences of the decline of realism. The culture doesn't have a way of thinking about transcendentals. From an article on What is Math that I frequently cite in this context:

    scholars—especially those working in other branches of science—view Platonism with skepticism. Scientists tend to be empiricists; they imagine the universe to be made up of things we can touch and taste and so on; things we can learn about through observation and experiment. The idea of something existing “outside of space and time” makes empiricists nervous: It sounds embarrassingly like the way religious believers talk about God, and God was banished from respectable scientific discourse a long time ago.

    Platonism, as mathematician Brian Davies has put it, “has more in common with mystical religions than it does with modern science.” The fear is that if mathematicians give Plato an inch, he’ll take a mile. If the truth of mathematical statements can be confirmed just by thinking about them, then why not ethical problems, or even religious questions? Why bother with empiricism at all?

    Massimo Pigliucci, a philosopher at the City University of New York, was initially attracted to Platonism—but has since come to see it as problematic. If something doesn’t have a physical existence, he asks, then what kind of existence could it possibly have? “If one ‘goes Platonic’ with math,” writes Pigliucci, empiricism “goes out the window.” (If the proof of the Pythagorean theorem exists outside of space and time, why not the “golden rule,” or even the divinity of Jesus Christ?)

    Speaks volumes, in my opinion.

    I think a modern notion of forms is defensible. The forms are simply the arrangement of quarks, leptons, and bosons that make up protons and neutrons, or the form that a carbon atom takes, etc013zen

    I think that was the view defended by D M Armstrong, 'Materialist Theory of Mind'. But I think it's a reification, an attempt to understand ideas in a quasi- or pseudo-scientific framework and fit them into the procrustean bed of naturalism. My somewhat revisionist interpretation of the forms or ideas, is that they're more like principles - perhaps logical principles, like the LEM, for example (or the principle of triangularity or circularity, for others). In what sense can these principles be said to exist? Only as an 'object of intellect', in the Greek sense (that is, they are real as noumenal objects). Our thinking is suffused with and dependent on these kinds of principles in order to make sense of experience, but again, they're not 'out there' in the world. They're not objective, but we rely on them to determine what is objective. But again, the culture we're in doesn't have a way of framing transcendentals, because of the historic rejection of metaphysics. (Not for a minute claiming there should be a 'return' to traditionalism, but a re-interpretation of these fundamental issues.)
  • Aristotle's Metaphysics
    I don't think Aristotle is wrong about that, either. I understand much of his actual science is outmoded - no surprise there - but elements of the metaphysics and other aspects of his philosophy are still current (or in fact timeless). I've learned that there's been a minor revival of interest in Aristotle's biology, due to the inescapable teleological features of, well, all living things. Edward Feser has a book on the revival, Aristotle's Revenge.

    As it happens, the very first post I entered on the predecessor forum to this one, was about what I now understand to be Platonic realism, i.e. that abstracta (in that case numbers), are real but not materially existent. I've discussed and debated the issue many times but I find that it's neither well understood nor widely supported - principally because it is obviously incompatible with physicalism.

    In any case, after much more reading and deliberation, I decided that some form of scholastic realism - realism concerning universals - simply must be true, for the reasons you've sketched out. What I'm referring to as the calamity of the decline of Greek metaphysics is subject of some influential books. One is Ideas have Consequences, which was a surprise best-seller by a Uni of Chicago English professor in the post-war period. It is all about the longer-term consequences of the decline of metaphysics:

    Like Macbeth, Western man made an evil decision, which has become the efficient and final cause of other evil decisions. Have we forgotten our encounter with the witches on the heath? It occurred in the late fourteenth century, and what the witches said to the protagonist of this drama was that man could realize himself more fully if he would only abandon his belief in the existence of transcendentals. The powers of darkness were working subtly, as always, and they couched this proposition in the seemingly innocent form of an attack upon universals. The defeat of logical realism in the great medieval debate was the crucial event in the history of Western culture; from this flowed those acts which issue now in modern decadence. — Richard Weaver

    (This book is rather unfortunately nowadays associated with American political conservatism, with which I have no affinity, but I believe his basic argument still stands.)

    Another more recent book is The Theological Origins of Modernity, Michael Allen Gillespie, around 2008. THere's a snynopsis here.

    Then there are Lloyd Gerson's books, the most recent being Platonism and Naturalism: The Possibility of Philosophy. Gerson's books are not very approachable for the lay reader as they are aimed very much at his academic peers, but he too supports Aristotelian or scholastic realism. But his main argument is to the incompatibility of Platonism and Naturalism, and the contention that Platonism is coterminous with philosophy proper. (Rather a good online lecture on this book here.)

    Finally an essay called What's Wrong with Ockham - actually the source of that Weaver quote - which is on Academia (originally published on a now extinct website.) It too is a dense scholarly work, but the concluding section on what was lost with the Aristotelian 'aitia' (fourfold causation) is important:

    Thomists and other critics of Ockham have tended to present traditional realism, with its forms or natures, as the solution to the modern problem of knowledge. It seems to me that it does not quite get to the heart of the matter. A genuine realist should see “forms” not merely as a solution to a distinctly modern problem of knowledge, but as part of an alternative conception of knowledge, a conception that is not so much desired and awaiting defense, as forgotten and so no longer desired. Characterized by forms, reality had an intrinsic intelligibility, not just in each of its parts but as a whole. With forms as causes, there are interconnections between different parts of an intelligible world, indeed there are overlapping matrices of intelligibility in the world, making possible an ascent from the more particular, posterior, and mundane to the more universal, primary, and noble.

    In short, the appeal to forms or natures does not just help account for the possibility of trustworthy access to facts, it makes possible a notion of wisdom, traditionally conceived as an ordering grasp of reality. Preoccupied with overcoming Cartesian skepticism, it often seems as if philosophy’s highest aspiration is merely to secure some veridical cognitive events. Rarely sought is a more robust goal: an authoritative and life-altering wisdom.

    I am surprised to have discovered these sources, because they're mainly associated with Catholicism - Edward Feser and author of that last paper are Catholic professors - but I'm myself not Catholic. But I like to think of it as a uniquely Western manifestation of the philosophia perennis, which apart from the kinds of sources I've referred to, is nowadays mainly lost and forgotten.

    Sorry about such a long and dense post, but it's a very large topic.
  • Vervaeke-Henriques 'Transcendent Naturalism'
    What happened to the hippies of '67?Apustimelogist

    One of them started Apple Computer..


    I suspect Vervaeke sits with all those theorists and self-help folk who seek to offer a remedy for common anxiety.Tom Storm

    And I think that's a very small-minded way of looking at it. Vervaeke’s opus is nearer my interests than most of what is written about here, and he's a legitimate academic, he's not fringe or crank. He dialogues with a lot of interesting people and they cover a lot of topics in depth. The reason he's developed a following is because he's saying something that needs to be said, and that a lot of people needed to hear, shame folks here don't appreciate that, but nothing I can say is likely to change it.

    Anyway, I'm logging out for a while, posting here has become too much of a habit, and it profiteth nothing. I need to develop some other interests.
  • Vervaeke-Henriques 'Transcendent Naturalism'
    I don't know where you sourced that quote. As explained in the OP: John Vernaeke is a professor of psychology at the University of Toronto. He currently teaches courses on thinking and reasoning with an emphasis on cognitive development, intelligence, rationality, mindfulness, and the psychology of wisdom.

    Vervaeke is the director of University of Toronto’s Consciousness and Wisdom Studies Laboratory and its Cognitive Science program, where he teaches Introduction to Cognitive Science and The Cognitive Science of Consciousness, emphasizing the 4E model, which contends that cognition and consciousness are embodied, embedded, enacted, and extended beyond the brain.

    Vervaeke has taught courses on Buddhism and Cognitive Science in the Buddhism, Psychology, and Mental Health program for 15 years.

    some here seem to think of materialism, (better known now as physicalism or naturalism) as superficial and untenable nonsenseTom Storm

    I see physicalism as the implicit consensus, the common-sense understanding of life and mind, that is one of the consequences of Enlightenment rationalism. Vervaeke addresses it indirectly - the initial lecture series that became popular on Youtube was called 'Awakening from the Meaning Crisis', described as follows:

    We are in the midst of a mental health crisis. There are increases in anxiety disorders, depression, despair, and suicide rates are going up in North America, parts of Europe, and other parts of the world. This mental health crisis is itself due to, and engaged with, crises in the environment and the political system, those in turn are enmeshed within a deeper cultural historical crisis that John Vervaeke calls “The Meaning Crisis”. It’s more and more pervasive throughout our lives. And there’s a sense of drowning in this old ocean of bullshit. And we have to understand, why is this the case? And what can we do about it?

    Today, there is an increase of people feeling very disconnected from themselves, from each other, from the world, and from a viable and foreseeable future. Let’s discuss this, let’s work on it together, let’s rationally reflect on it. Getting out of this problem is going to be tremendously difficult. It’s going to require significant transformations in our cognition, our culture, our communities. And in order to move forward in such a difficult manner, we have to reach more deeply into our past to salvage the resources we can for such an amazing challenge.

    That links to a series of 51 lectures which can be found here:

    This series provides a historical genealogy – beginning 40,000 years ago – that explores the rise and fall of meaning in the West, and the philosophy, religion and science that nurtured it. Vervaeke examines how human beings evolved to be meaning-making creatures, and why this is so essential to our culture and cognition. The series explores how the decline of meaningful worldviews has paved the way for various modern ailments, such as our political, environmental and mental health crises, and the rising suicide rates in North America and around the world.

    At the very least, it's worth scrolling through the lecture titles. My view is, that it is extraordinarily relevant to what we are always discussing on thephilosophyforum, in fact for the next few months I'm going to spend more time listening and less posting.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    If enlightenment is possible, then it must be experienced directly and could mean nothing to those who have not experienced it, in the sense that they could have no idea what it means, but they certainly could imagine many things.Janus

    It’s worth recalling the origin of ‘enlightenment’. It was used by the Pali Text Society to translate ‘bodhi’ from the Buddhist texts. Elsewhere that word is translated as ‘wisdom’ which doesn’t carry the same rather portentous connotations. I suppose that the idea of ‘conversion’ - something like a Road to Damascus experience - is then also imputed to it. But perhaps in reality it is something rather more prosaic. That is more like the Sōtō Zen attitude of ‘ordinary mind’.

    (Here, I’m actually reminding myself.)
  • Aristotle's Metaphysics
    Namely, knowledge of universals or what is common to all particular instances.

    It seems as though Aristotle is telling us what he takes wisdom to consist in.
    013zen

    While I agree, recall that modern culture is generally nominalist and empiricist. There are still advocates of scholastic realism and hylomorphism but they're mainly Catholic philosophers or specialised academics. (See this index.) As far as the mainstream of philosophy is concerned, Aristotelian metaphysics was retired pretty well around the same time as Aristotelian physics, with the scientific revolution and the abandonment of geocentrism.

    This is a theme I have been pursuing but I'm woefully under-prepared to really tackle it. But it's based on my belief that the decline of scholastic metaphysics was a momentous and generally calamitous change in Western culture. I'm always harking back to the supposedly spiritual elements of Greek philosophy but they get pretty short shrift on this forum and elsewhere.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    Know what you mean.
  • Vervaeke-Henriques 'Transcendent Naturalism'

    Great current dialogos on The Philosopical Silk Road

    @ENOAH, @javra
  • Locke's Enquiry, Innateness, and Teleology
    Incidentally I happened upon a good definition of teleology in a video by neuroscientist Lisa Feldman Barrett, which defines it as 'an explanation of phenomena in terms of the purpose which they serve rather than the cause by which they arise.'
  • Locke's Enquiry, Innateness, and Teleology
    Agree with you. If you re-frame the innate ideas as innate capacities then much of the problem goes away. Humans may not be born with an innate grasp of the LEM but they are born with the capacity to grasp it, which is brought forth by education. Same for language which humans uniquely possess. The fact that some humans are mute or disabled doesn’t vitiate that.

    I think what the empiricists such as Locke took issue with are universals which were supposed by scholastic philosophy to be grasped by reason which is unique to man and in some sense innate to the soul. But even if humans do uniquely possess that capacity to reason it must be brought to fruition by education (the root word of which means ‘to bring forth’). But aside from that, it’s obvious that individuals are born with innate capacities, if not fully-formed ideas, then at least the ability to produce them. Look at child musical prodigies, for heaven’s sake. Or math prodigies like Terry Tao. Plainly something innate there the lack of which no amount of ‘experience’ will substitute for. (Maybe the slave boy in the Meno was one such, and Socrates got lucky!)

    And besides all that, Kant clearly demonstrated the shortcoming of Locke’s ‘tabula rasa’ in his reply to Hume.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    As far as I can tell. It’s a lynchpin of Schopenhauer’s philosophy. (I also wonder if it was an inspiration for Freud’s libido theory?)
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    Also that’s S not K
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    It’s the double-aspect point of one’s own body - that on the one hand it’s an object to us but on the other it’s the only thing we’re subjectively aware of. Still getting my head around that.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    People weren't put on trial for heresy, but people in the natural sciences were hounded out of their careers or threatened with this fate for violating the established orthodoxy.Count Timothy von Icarus

    This was a cartoon of Thomas Nagel post publication of Mind and Cosmos and its critique of neo-Darwinist orthodoxy


    6a010535ce1cf6970c017ee98284de970d-pi

    What can be said at all can be said
    clearly; and whereof one cannot speak thereof one must be silent.
    — TLP Intro

    Well, and apropos of the comparisons of Wittgenstein and Buddhism, consider this example of an apophatic teaching from the Pali texts. 'The wanderer Vacchagotta' is a figure in these texts who customarily raises philosophical questions. Here the Buddha maintains 'a noble silence' to a question to which neither 'yes' or 'no' hits the mark.

    Then the wanderer Vacchagotta went to the Blessed One and, on arrival, exchanged courteous greetings with him. After an exchange of friendly greetings & courtesies, he sat to one side. As he was sitting there he asked the Blessed One: "Now then, Venerable Gotama, is there a self?"

    When this was said, the Blessed One was silent.

    "Then is there no self?"

    A second time, the Blessed One was silent.

    Then Vacchagotta the wanderer got up from his seat and left.

    Think also of the many instances of aporia in the dialogues of Plato. There, the participants are wrestling with difficult, and often insoluble questions, which frequently don't come to a conclusion. There are hints, maybes, 'could be's' and so on. Maybe Wittgenstein is saying 'now go off and wrestle with them. Don't try and wrap them up in nice neat syllogisms and repeating dogmas that you really don't understand.'

    The book will, therefore, draw a limit to thinking, or rather not to
    thinking, but to the expression of thoughts; for, in order to draw a limit
    to thinking we should have to be able to think both sides of this limit
    (we should therefore have to be able to think what cannot be thought).
    — TLP Intro

    The limits, or rather limitations, of discursive thinking are likewise well understood in esoteric traditions. e.g. The Twilight Language, by Rod Bucknell, 'the notion of "twilight language" is a supposed polysemic language and communication system associated with tantric traditions. It includes visual communication, verbal communication and nonverbal communication.'

    More to all this than meets the ‘I’.
  • Aristotle's Metaphysics
    But if happiness (eudomonia) consists in activity in accordance with virtue, it is reasonable that it should be activity in accordance with the highest virtue; and this will be the virtue of the best part of us. Whether then this be the Intellect (nous), or whatever else it be that is thought to rule and lead us by nature, and to have cognizance of what is noble and divine, either as being itself also actually divine, or as being relatively the divinest part of us, it is the activity of this part of us in accordance with the virtue proper to it that will constitute perfect happiness; and it has been stated already* that this activity is the activity of contemplation — Nichomachean Ethics 7. 1. (1177a11)
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    I'm not a Schopenhauer scholar...Gnomon

    All his works are freely available online. Granted, a fair amount of reading, but the World as Will and Representation Vol 1 is a good start. In respect of the nature of the will, and why everything should be seen as its manifestation, read the paragraphs beginning here. Not easy reading, but then which of the German idealist were?
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    This makes Wittgenstein sound like a neutral figure regarding how to use language, but it is clear he favored (in Tractatus) empirical claims to "Facts of the world" over language that he thought could (SHOULD) not be expressed (nonsense)..schopenhauer1

    But (and forgive my fragmentary knowledge of the text) I had rather thought that the final sections of the Tractatus (from about 6.371 on) were conclusions of the work as a whole. The Vienna Circle positivists interpreted them to support their contention that metaphysics is nonsensical, but Wittgenstein never attended their meetings or expressed support for them. As another review mentions - and this one was originally published by the British Wittgenstein Association, so is bona fide:

    The declared aim of the Vienna Circle was to make philosophy either subservient to or somehow akin to the natural sciences. As Ray Monk says in his superb biography Ludwig Wittgenstein: The Duty of Genius (1990), “the anti-metaphysical stance that united them [was] the basis for a kind of manifesto which was published under the title The Scientific View of the World: The Vienna Circle.” Yet as Wittgenstein himself protested again and again in the Tractatus, the propositions of natural science “have nothing to do with philosophy” (6.53); “Philosophy is not one of the natural sciences” (4.111); “It is not problems of natural science which have to be solved” (6.4312); “even if all possible scientific questions be answered, the problems of life have still not been touched at all” (6.52); “There is indeed the inexpressible. This shows itself; it is the mystical” (6.522). None of these sayings could possibly be interpreted as the views of a man who had renounced metaphysics. The Logical Positivists of the Vienna Circle had got Wittgenstein wrong, and in so doing had discredited themselves.

    The phrases I've often pointed to in that concluding section were these:

    6.4.1 The meaning of the world must lie outside of it. In the world everything is as it is and everything happens as it happens; there is no value in it - and if there were, it would have no value.

    If there is a value that has value, it must lie outside everything that happens and is. Because everything that happens and exists is accidental.

    What makes it non-random cannot be in the world, otherwise it would be random again.

    It must be outside the world.

    And that is metaphysics as a matter of definition, as is the nearby (6.4312) 'The solution to the riddle of life in space and time lies outside of space and time.'

    Of course, this leads directly to section 7, which are the famous last words: Whereof one can not speak, thereof one must be silent. And that is the phrase which is often invoked to dismiss what is considered to be metaphysically speculative.

    This is Wittgenstein's mystical side ('However, there are unspeakable things. This shows itself, it is the mystical.') I see it as a form of apophaticism, the via negativa, albeit expressed in a non-religious idiom, unlike the traditional form, which was expressed in the idiom of pre-modern theology. in 6.53 he says:

    The correct method of philosophy would actually be this: to say nothing other than what can be said, i.e. propositions of natural science - something that has nothing to do with philosophy - and then whenever someone else wanted to say something metaphysical, to prove it to him that he gave no meaning to certain characters in his sentences. This method would be unsatisfactory for the other person - he would not have the feeling that we were teaching him philosophy - but it would be the only strictly correct one.

    Presumably, this is the section the logical positivists seized on to support their scientism. But they overlook the significance of what cannot be said. It's beyond reason, not irrational, and there's a world of difference. The point of this whole section, seems to me, is to arrive at a kind of apophatic silence, to realise what is beyond words. I thoroughly appreciate that, but it is easily misunderstood, seems to me.
  • ChatGPT 4 Answers Philosophical Questions
    Hey Sam - this current mini-documentary came up in my feed today. I follow this channel, he produces a lot of first-rate content on technology and business matters. Have a look at this one for some of the features and ramifications of GPT 4o.

  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    I get that. Speaking as one whose musings are often deprecated or ignored by analytic philosophers, I don't feel a sense of resentment or exclusion on that account - it’s a matter of diverging philosophical interests, which one has to accept in a pluralistic world. But then, I do sense the fact that many of the ‘analyticals’ are really pretty rigid in their concentration on ‘language games’ and the like and they often use the famous last words of the Tractatus to stifle discussion of what I consider significant philosophical questions. But, you know, c’est la vie. One moves on to another thread.
  • What do you reckon of Philosophy Stack Exchange ?
    My only activities in philosophy have been online since I discovered forums around 2009 (aside from 2 years of under-graduate studies back in the day). I found PSE during that time and just thought of it as another forum, although as noted it’s rather more specific.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    I think key to the 'noumena' issue is Kant's criticism of the rationalists including Liebniz and Descartes, both of whom believed the existence of God could be proven by rational principles. A major part of his critique is in criticizing the legitimacy of those kinds of ideas (on the one side, but also of the empirical philosophers on the other, who claimed knowledge comes from sense-experience alone.)

    Kant argued that as a matter of principle we can't know what is beyond the bounds of sense and reason, which God by definition is (although elsewhere he also 'made room for faith' as he saw a necessity for God as the ground of practical reason and ethics). But much of his discussion of 'noumena' and 'ding-an-sich' (which are not the same but often confused with each other) is set against that background.

    I think interminable confusion results from trying to figure out what 'noumenal' or 'ding-an-sich' really means, or is. It's like trying to peek behind the curtain, so to speak. Whereas, according to this primer on Kant,

    Kant's introduced the concept of the “thing in itself” to refer to reality as it is independent of our experience of it and unstructured by our cognitive constitution. The concept was harshly criticized in his own time and has been lambasted by generations of critics since. A standard objection to the notion is that Kant has no business positing it, given his insistence that we can only know what lies within the limits of possible experience. But a more sympathetic reading is to see the concept of the “thing in itself” as a sort of placeholder in Kant's system; it both marks the limits of what we can know and expresses a sense of mystery that cannot be dissolved, the sense of mystery that underlies our unanswerable questions. Through both of these functions it serves to keep us humble.

    Viewed in that light, and resisting the urge to 'peek behind', I think it's quite a reasonable idea.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    The guy who does the Great Courses' modern phil survey course makes this point. He is talking about Hegel, but the two were contemporaries and even taught across the hall from one another for a period. He says Hegel was the last great philosopher in terms of creating an all encompassing system (aesthetics, ethics, politics, metaphysics, epistemology, etc.)Count Timothy von Icarus

    It's well-known that Schopenhauer despised Hegel (and didn't hold too many of the other German philosophers of his day in high regard either.) I agree with Schopenhauer that Hegel was extremely verbose. I feel that German idealism collapsed under the weight of its own verbosity and obscurity but that Schopenhauer's reputation has endured, because of the relative brevity and style of his writing. (I know that Schelling and Hegel each have a following but they're really confined to the ivory tower, don't you think?)

    If noumena are mediated reality, why do we have phenomena? We know….theoretically…..what phenomena are mediated by, re: sensation, but what mediates noumena when we don’t even know what a noumenon would be? And whatever it may be, it certainly isn’t a sensation for us.Mww

    In traditional (pre-modern) philosophy, wasn't it the case that 'intelligible objects' were known immediately, i.e. knowledge of them was unmediated by sense? That when you know an arithmetical principle or proof, you 'see' it in a way that you can't see a sense-object? They are "higher" in the sense of being immediately grasped, rather than intermediated by the senses. Isn't that the gist of the 'eye of reason' in the Platonic tradition? (I'm writing here from a more pre-Kantian perspective.)
  • Aristotle's Metaphysics
    Between these statements he questions whether such knowledge is appropriate for human beings. It is divine knowledge, both in the sense that it is knowledge of the divine as cause and knowledge that a god alone or most of all would have. Above the entryway to the temple of Apollo are inscribed the words "know thyself". One way in which this was understood is that man should know his place. He is not a god and does not possess knowledge of the gods in the double sense of knowing the gods and knowing what the gods know.Fooloso4

    The book I'm currently reading points to the origin of metaphysics, with Parmenides 'prose-poem', saying that after the introductory section, written in first person, the substance of the remainder is indeed given to Parmenides by the Goddess:

    Since the rest of the poem is presented as the speech of the Goddess, this grasp of the whole is received as a gift, a revelation from the divine. The very first full-fledged metaphysician in the western tradition, then, experiences his understanding of being in religious terms, as an encounter with divinity. It is no surprise, therefore, that, according to the Goddess, the road Parmenides takes “is outside the tread of men” (B 1.27). Thus the Goddess draws a sharp distinction between “the untrembling heart of well-rounded truth” on the one hand, and “the opinions of mortals” on the other. The implication is that truth, as distinct from mere human seeming, is divine. We may be reminded of Heraclitus’ dictum, “Human character does not have insights, divine has”. — Eric D. Perl, Thinking Being, p13

    But 'divine inspiration' is also central in Plato. In the Phaedrus, Plato discusses the soul’s journey and the role of divine madness in achieving true insight and wisdom. This divine madness is considered a form of inspiration from the gods, enabling the soul to recollect the Forms and the ultimate truths of existence. In the Symposium, Plato also emphasizes the role of the divine in the pursuit of wisdom through Diotima’s ladder of love, which ultimately leads to the contemplation of the Form of Beauty, a divine and eternal truth.

    Later Neoplatonists like Plotinus and Proclus build upon Plato’s ideas, emphasizing the One or the Good as a transcendent source of all reality. Their interpretations, deeply rooted in Plato’s works, highlight the divine and mystical dimensions of his philosophy. These were to have considerable influence on the formation of Christian theology (and are nowadays deprecated on that account, I would contend). Whereas much contemporary philosophy, with its naturalistic and generally materialistic tendencies, tends to reinterpret ancient texts to fit modern frameworks.
  • What do you reckon of Philosophy Stack Exchange ?
    I've posted a number of threads there over the years. They're a much tougher bunch of reviewers than here, and it's very strictly moderated. The idea is, you go there to ask questions and elicit answers, NOT to engage in the kind of free-wheeling debates that we have here (if the back and forth yields a debate, it is split off into a different, 'chat room', format, which I've never pursued). But if I have specific questions I will sometimes raise them there (for example).

    //oh, and I have also used StackExchange for IT-related questions, principally SharePoint.
  • Quantifier Variance, Ontological Pluralism, and Other Fun Stuff
    I'm not one of the people making these analogies, but I don't see any harm in distinguishing "how to play chess" from "why to play chess" or even from "why to play this game of chess this way." I can belabor the point if you'd like.Srap Tasmaner

    I recently watched a lecture on evolutionary neuroscience, which included a striking slide at 7:13 defining teleology as 'the explanation of phenomena in terms of the purpose they serve rather than the cause by which they arise.' I found this definition marvelously succinct.

    In the context of your analogy, distinguishing between "how to play chess" and "why play it?" is indeed relevant, albeit obliquely, to the broader issue of quantifier variability. The question of "how to play" presupposes the existence of the game. In a culture unfamiliar with chess, the question of "why play it?" must be addressed first, if only to find someone else to play with. Chess is an artificially constrained experience with a definite aim—winning. However, real philosophical questions are not so constrained.

    In chess, the existential quantifier is tied to the game's rules and objectives, which provides an implicit purpose. In real life, existence encompasses a broader and more varied range of possibilities and outcomes, without the clear constraints of a game, and with the existence of a purpose being harder to discern.

    Thus, using chess as an analogy for existential questions might constrain our understanding in ways that don't necessarily apply to real life. This is the sense in which chess is a poor analogy for the question of different kinds of existence, as I understand 'quantifier variability'.

    Am I getting it?
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    I would put it that some people have particular interests in philosophy, and so take Wittgenstein as pointless or trivialAntony Nickles

    Maybe inadvertently, I think this helps make the point, as that is the reciprocal of how their interests are regarded by him.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    We’ve come to expect not a single original thought is possible. Listen for the propaganda, repeat it like a mantra until it’s true by sheer repetition. Rinse and repeat.NOS4A2

    At last! A confession.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    While it is true we think in images, as soon as we present to ourselves a representation of a triangle in general, it is a particular instance of a universal idea. In no other way than by means of principles, is it possible to think things in general, the backbone of pure transcendental cognitions.Mww

    Thanks for your elucidations, they're helpful.

    is therefore the most ultimate reality for S the Will? Or is there a Being of all Beings which is merely manifesting as the Will?ENOAH

    See this blog post. It's not directly about Schopenhauer, but some of his near-contemporaries, grappling with the division between phenomena/noumena posed by Kant:

    Hegel and Schleiermacher thought that Kant had missed something important—namely, that the self which experiences the world is also a part of the world it is experiencing. Rather than there being this sharp divide between the experiencing subject and things-in-themselves, with phenomena emerging at the point of interface, the experiencing subject is a thing-in-itself. It is noumenal—or, put another way, the self that experiences the world is part of the ultimate reality that lies behind experience.

    So: the self that has experiences is a noumenal reality. Both Schleiermacher and Hegel believed that this fact could be made use of, so that somehow the self could serve as a wedge to pry open a doorway through the wall of mystery, into an understanding of reality as it is in itself. ...

    ... Schleiermacher dealt with this conundrum by privileging a distinct mode of self-consciousness, one in which all attempts to make the self into an object of consciousness—that is, all attempts to come to know the self—are set aside. When the self is made an object of study it becomes a phenomenon, and as such is divorced from the noumenal self. But it is possible to simply be—to become quiescent, if you will, and simply be what one is rather than attempt to know what one is.

    And in this place of cognitive stillness, one discovers in a direct experiential way an ultimate reality that cannot be conceptualized or made into an object of study. This is the domain of mystical experience—and even though it is ineffable (that is, even if it cannot be made into an object of knowledge) it brings with it a kind of insight or enlightenment. One may not be able to adequately put this experience into propositional terms that can be affirmed as true, but that doesn’t mean one hasn’t in some sense encountered noumenal reality. One hasn’t encountered it as an object of experience (since that would turn it into a phenomenon). Rather, one encounters it in the way one experiences.

    The challenge, then, is to attempt to articulate this encounter in a way that is meaningful to us--in other words, in a way that our cognitive minds can grasp and affirm. The encounter itself is what Schleiermacher calls “religion.”
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    Can you cite any passages from Aristotle, Plato, or Parmenides or the scholastics that explicitly equate thinking with being?Janus

    I provided a link to the .pdf of that book (which incidentally is out of print and was very expensive when available.) As the title of the book is Thinking Being, then one might surmise that it explores the very question you're asking, so I will refer you to it, as it is practically impossible to present a synopsis in a forum post, especially as it is tangential to the thread topic.

    In Thinking Being, Eric Perl articulates central ideas and arguments regarding the nature of reality in Parmenides, Plato, Aristotle, Plotinus, and Aquinas. He shows that, throughout this tradition, these ideas proceed from and return to the indissoluble togetherness of thought and being, first clearly expressed by Parmenides. The emphasis throughout is on continuity rather than opposition: Aristotle appears as a follower of Plato in identifying being as intelligible form, and Aquinas as a follower of Plotinus in locating the first principle “beyond being”. Hence Neoplatonism, itself a coherent development of Platonic thought, comes to be seen as the mainstream of classical philosophy. Perl’s book thus contributes to a revisionist understanding of the fundamental outlines of the western tradition in metaphysics.abstract
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    This is arguably because, before the modern sciences of optics and visual perception, the eyes were thought to be the 'windows' through which the soul looked out onto the world, so there would have been no notion of "distortion" which may be posited in relation to the senses as they are now understood.Janus

    But the basis of traditional metaphysics was 'the identity of thinking and being' (per Eric D. Perl, Thinking Being: Introduction to Metaphysics in the Classical Tradition.) And that in turn relied on Parmenides' metaphysics inherited and transformed by Plato and Aristotle. It was still apparent in Aquinas, whereby the intellect receives the forms whilst the senses perceive the material body. Thereby particulars are perceived as beings which are the expressions of an idea or form or principle. There is no way that can be equated with naive realism.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    There is this weird myth that pre-modern philosophers were naive realists, or even a backwards projection of positivist notions of "objectivity," on to them. I don't think this could be further from the truth.Count Timothy von Icarus

    :100: :clap:
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    Wittgenstein's significance is at least in part a sign of the times. In the olden days, there was a relatively unified worldview or set of shared beliefs against which controversies and disputes were conducted. But now there is no consensus at all about every fundamental aspect of existence, apart from various implications of what science seems to be telling us - which as Wittgenstein said, have no bearing on 'the problems of life'. Set against that confusion, Wittgenstein is presented as a beacon of clarity.

    'Yes, but...' will come the reply.

    Wittgenstein, especially the later Wittgenstein, viewed philosophy as it had been practiced more or less up his own arrival as mostly a budget of confusions. Philosophical problems and "theories" one and all arise, he says at one point in the Philosophical Investigations, from language gone on a holiday. The rough idea is that a whole lot of philosophy gets going by taking terms like say "knowledge" or "mind" or "idea" or -- take your pick -- and raising questions that have nothing to do with our sort of everyday use of such terms in the context of the "language games" in which they are at home.

    Take the so-called problem of other minds. How does this problem get started? Well, Descartes convinced many philosophers that we have immediate and incorrigible access to the contents of our own minds, as if the mind were somehow completely open to itself. It's clear we don't in the same way know the contents of the minds of others. Starting with that observation, it really wouldn't take much argument to get yourself into the frame of thinking that one can reasonably and intelligibly wonder whether we have anyway of knowing about the minds of others. And once you got yourself into that state of wonder, it wouldn't take a whole lot of further argument to convince yourself to be an utter sceptic about our knowledge of other minds. Of course, at least some other philosophers will be unmoved by your scepticism. They may take themselves to be the guardians of common sense. But as soon as they admit that your arguments at least deserve answering, that there really is a problem about our knowledge of other minds, then we're off and running on a race to see which set of philosophical arguments will carry the day. Sceptical arguments will war with anti-sceptical arguments. the debate will go on -- probably interminably, with no real resolution ever being achieved.

    We philosophers tend to think of our problems as "enduring." But the Wittgensteinian thought is that that may just be another way of saying intractable, however. And Wittgenstein can be seen as offering us an explanation of why we find the problems so intractable. That's the point of his saying that philosophical problems arise when language goes on holiday. This is not for him a sign that the problems of philosophy are deep. It is rather a sign that they are grounded in utter confusion and abuse of language.

    Now I won't try to reconstruct the arguments that might lead one down the primrose path of worrying about our knowledge of other minds. I'll leave that as exercise to the reader for now. What Wittgenstein wants to do for philosophy is to give us a way of avoiding taking even the very first step down such paths in the first place. The secret, he thinks, is simply to look at how we actually use such terms as 'knowledge' 'self' 'others' etc in the real life language games and "forms of life" in which those terms are at home. Philosophy should simply stick to describing use. It should abandon the grand hope of building philosophical theories of things like mind, knowledge and self. It has no particular resources for enabling it to construct such theories in the first place. And all of its past attempts to do so have led to intractable confusion.

    Once we abandon the urge to build grand philosophical theories designed to get at, as it were, hidden philosophical essences, and simply look at how language is actually used, it's not so much that we thereby solve the traditional philosophical problems, It's rather that we dissolve them. If we simply look at our actual practices, we will see that the idea that we know the contents of our own minds in some immediate, incorrigible fashion that is different from the way in which we we know the minds of others cannot be sustained. The very problem that gets the whole intractable debate about our knowledge of self vs. our knowledge of other minds is based again on "language gone on a holiday." And once you see this, the problem immediately dissolves itself.

    There's something profound about Wittgenstein's approach. Not without reason did generations of later philosophers find it a potent rallying cry. It's certainly true that we want to pay attention to how our language is actually used and we don't want, through mere inattention to the facts of use, to generate pseudo problems. But I have to say that I think it is a serious mistake to think that all the so-called traditional problems of philosophy are mere pseudo-problems borne of insufficient attention to how we actually use certain quite ordinary terms, that, in their everyday use, are completely unproblematic.
    Kenneth Taylor, Why I am Not a Wittgensteinian

    As for the 'intractable confusion' that this post refers to, I'm not sure that this accurately describes every advocate for the various schools of philosophy being referred to. They might believe that their school of thought is crystal clear.

    'Yes, but....'
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    And I find it interesting that "Facts" and "State of Affairs" are just taken as givens, thus stated.. As if you make your sentences stark enough, you can make statements of metaphysics that can be the exception... Because it is just a skeleton "showing" you.. duh! Unlike YOU, Wayfarer, with your overrought metaphysical constructs. Go kick rocks bud! Come back when you want to discuss the FACTS.schopenhauer1

    As you can probably guess, my approach is very much shaped by 'history of ideas' as much as philosophy per se. I'm interested in the dialectics of modernity and how the modern worldview emerged. That's more characteristic of comparative religion and continental philosophy than English-speaking philosophy. (My first degree was in comparative religion, after one of my philosophy lecturers took me aside and kindly advised me that I wouldn't find what I was looking for in his department.)

    I think @Tom Storm's mention of the Ray Monk bio of Wittgenstein is probably a good starting point for the casual reader. Also a magazine article by him, Wittgenstein's Forgotten Lesson.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    No, it's a real parallel. You will notice that I linked a google search in my remarks, have a look. I think Wittgenstein correct with his sense that we're generally confused, but it's by a great deal more than just 'language', it runs a lot deeper than that.
  • Wittgenstein and How it Elicits Asshole Tendencies.
    I would question whether this is a particularly helpful or good faith way to pose the question.Count Timothy von Icarus

    Agree that the OP title could have been worded more tactfully. But I see the point.

    I've often noticed that philosophical ideas I want to discuss are smothered by Wittgenstein's admonition the last line of the TLP, 'that of which we cannot speak'. I've been accused in the last day of 'saying things that shouldn't be said', in my (probably clumsy) attempts at understanding classical metaphysics.

    “My propositions serve as elucidations in the following way: anyone who understands me eventually recognizes them as nonsensical when he has used them — as steps — to climb beyond them. (He must, so to speak, throw away the ladder after he has climbed up it.) He must transcend these propositions, and then he will see the world aright.” ~ WittgensteinFire Ologist

    There has been quite a bit written on the theme of Wittgenstein and Zen Buddhism often citing this passage. The comparison from the Buddhist texts is the 'parable of the raft', in which the Buddha compares his teaching to a raft 'of twigs and branches', bound together to aid one's crossing of the 'river of suffering', but not carried about or extolled after 'the river is crossed'. It's an exact parallel. But then, Buddhism is explicitly a religious philosophy not only studied and read in philosophy departments, although it might also be that.

    I've casually perused the Tractatus, but much of the formal logical notation is over my head and I don't have sufficient interest to make the effort to learn it. But the mystical aphorisms towards the end of the work always resonated with me, although they're generally regarded as things one ought not to speak of.
  • Was Schopenhauer right?
    If noumena are instances of direct reality, why is it there is never an example of a noumenal object?Mww

    You know that Schopenhauer criticized Kant's use of the term 'noumenal', right? According to a passage in World as Will and Idea:

    The difference between abstract and intuitive cognition, which Kant entirely overlooks, was the very one that ancient philosophers indicated as φαινόμενα [phainomena] and νοούμενα [nooumena]; the opposition and incommensurability between these terms proved very productive in the philosophemes of the Eleatics, in Plato's doctrine of Ideas, in the dialectic of the Megarics, and later in the scholastics, in the conflict between nominalism and realism. This latter conflict was the late development of a seed already present in the opposed tendencies of Plato and Aristotle. But Kant, who completely and irresponsibly neglected the issue for which the terms φαινομένα and νοούμενα were already in use, then took possession of the terms as if they were stray and ownerless, and used them as designations of things in themselves and their appearances.

    The Wikipedia entry on Noumenon, from which that is copied, also says

    The Greek word νοούμενoν, nooúmenon (plural νοούμενα, nooúmena) is the neuter middle-passive present participle of νοεῖν, noeîn, 'to think, to mean', which in turn originates from the word νοῦς, noûs, an Attic contracted form of νόος, nóos, 'perception, understanding, mind'. A rough equivalent in English would be "that which is thought", or "the object of an act of thought".

    So, from that, I would have surmised that the ideas, in the Platonic and Aristotelian sense, might be regarded as 'noumenal objects' insofar as they're apprehended directly by intellect. Lloyd Gerson says in his essay Platonism and Naturalism:

    in thinking, the intelligible object or form is present in the intellect, and thinking itself is the identification of the intellect with this intelligible. ...Thinking is not something that is, in principle, like sensing or perceiving; this is because thinking is a universalising activity. This is what this means: when you think, you see - mentally see - a form which could not, in principle, be identical with a particular - including a particular neurological element, a circuit, or a state of a circuit, or a synapse, and so on. This is so because the object of thinking is universal, or the mind is operating universally.

    A related comment from Ed Feser:

    Consider that when you think about triangularity, as you might when proving a geometrical theorem, it is necessarily perfect triangularity that you are contemplating, not some mere approximation of it. Triangularity as your intellect grasps it is entirely determinate or exact; for example, what you grasp is the notion of a closed plane figure with three perfectly straight sides, rather than that of something which may or may not have straight sides or which may or may not be closed. Of course, your mental image of a triangle might not be exact, but rather indeterminate and fuzzy. But to grasp something with the intellect is not the same as to form a mental image of it. For any mental image of a triangle is necessarily going to be of an isosceles triangle specifically, or of a scalene one, or an equilateral one; but the concept of triangularity that your intellect grasps applies to all triangles alike. Any mental image of a triangle is going to have certain features, such as a particular color, that are no part of the concept of triangularity in general. A mental image is something private and subjective, while the concept of triangularity is objective and grasped by many minds at once.Edward Feser

    Now, I know these are all very knotty philosophical problems, in no way am I trying to resolve them. It's just that it seems to me that 'noumenon' as 'intelligible objects' in the sense of those two quotations make sense to me, but that does not seem to be what Kant meant by the term, as Schopenhauer said. I sometimes wonder if Kant put too much emphasis on the necessity of empirical validation, as there are whole fields, such as pure mathematics, which seem to me to constitute real knowledge, but which are not empirically realised.