Reverse racism/sexism https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/543213
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/543238
Before we get into prejudice, racism and oppression semantic discussions, please read the above two comments and perhaps we can at least agree on shared terminology.
Some short thoughts from me:
Oppressed people can be racist.
Not all racism leads to oppression.
Both oppression and racism are bad.
Personal racist opinions usually don't cause harm or are too particular to solve through political means.
Personal racism
alone doesn't lead to oppression.
Oppression is "cumulative" personal racism borne out by social groups or (in)directly caused by the operation of systems.
Oppression is a social injustice.
Social injustice requires political (e.g. "group") solutions.
We don't police people's thoughts so we can't do much against personal racism other than education. If it directly causes damage courts are open for claims.
Oppression is a social injustice which requires political action beyond the ability to file claims and state "we're all equal". Why? Because culture eats rules before breakfast. Or in other words, it's not enough to punish behaviour, you need to take steps to change culture/system to end oppression.