• TheHedoMinimalist
    460
    It is often assumed that you can believe in the existence of hypothetical reasons without believing in categorical reasons. I would like to challenge that assumption. The thing to consider is that any claim of a hypothetical reason seems to imply a claim of categorical reason. For example, if someone claims that you ought to drink water if you want or aim to quench your thirst, then they seem to be implying that you ought to do what takes to get what you want or to achieve your aims. You might as well say that you have categorical reasons to drink water because you have categorical reasons to fulfill your wishes. After all, why does it make sense to conceptualize a separate category of reasons that relate to the fulfillment of one’s own wishes but not have other similar categories of reasons? For example, why not have a separate category of reason that gives us reason to do something if it fulfills someone else’s desire or aim? Why does it specifically have to relate to our own desires? In addition, why do many philosophers think that desires give people reasons to act and not other phenomena like pleasure or suffering for example? Finally, why think that our current desires give us reason to act but not our future desires?

    I mention this because there are certain self-proclaimed anti-realist philosophers who are skeptical of categorical reasons but find hypothetical reasons uncontroversial. They seem to believe in a kind of “do whatever you want” ethic or life philosophy. But, it has always seemed to me that whether or not we have reason to do something simply because we want to do it is itself a bold and controversial ethical claim. Many philosophers such as myself don’t see how our own desires give us any more reason to act than say the desires of others. We may be motivated to act on our desires but I don’t think it implies that acting on our desires is always rational or that it’s something that we ought to do. So, a rejection of categorical reasons seems to equate to a rejection of any sort of normative reason in general.
  • javi2541997
    5.8k
    why do many philosophers think that desires give people reasons to act and not other phenomena like pleasure or suffering for example? Finally, why think that our current desires give us reason to act but not our future desires?TheHedoMinimalist

    True. I guess there are some philosophers here that are misunderstood. They try to put explain desire with reason when probably in the initial phase they aren’t even connected. However, I think it depends which philosophy we are speaking about.
    Plato was the most important philosopher in terms of spreading idealism. It is interesting how he developed the art of having ideas (desire) for other ideas in the future. But I guess this is very complex in practical terms because when I say: I wish I am happier! literally I am having a desire of another desire, but... somehow I will end up using praxis to get this goal. It is abstract but I think humans only act pursued by desires. As you perfectly explained here.

    .
    Many philosophers such as myself don’t see how our own desires give us any more reason to act than say the desires of othersTheHedoMinimalist

    Probably this happens because somehow we are also practical humans so we are forced to put those desires in tangible life through the reason.
  • 180 Proof
    15.4k
    I very much agree. :up:

    I think (just a sketch) in so far as one has agency, it is performatively self-contradictory to disable or allow one's agency to be(come) disabled; rationally, therefore, 'optimizing agency' functions as a categorical imperative that both enables (re: past-agency i.e. acquired habits, proficiencies, capabilities) and constrains (re: present harm / hazards to future-agency) every hypothetical imperative.
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