• Aidan buk
    25
    Hi, we are looking at Benacerraf's paper 'What numbers could not be'.
    My lecturer said that to Benacerraf, the question of whether 'the real number (1) is identical to the natural number (1)' would be meaningless to Benacerraf.
    I am assuming this is because the natural numbers are countably infinite while the real numbers are not,
    so the structures are not isomorphic and are therefore incomparable.
    Is this right?
    Thank you
  • Deleted User
    0
    This user has been deleted and all their posts removed.
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