• TheMadFool
    13.8k
    Everyone is more or less acquainted with Wittgenstein's concept of language games. There are a plethora of internet resources if you'd like to get a deeper understanding of the idea of language games.

    This post will focus on the accompanying notion of family resemblance. The www will explain it better than I ever can.

    Here's the deal:

    Suppose there's a word, "oit". Then, according to Wittgenstein, the following will be true:

    Definition of "oit"

    1. Oit means having the properties A, B
    2. Oit means having the properties B, C
    3. Oit means having the properties A, C

    As you can see, there is no essence that unifies every usage of "oit". Not A, not B, neither C nor any combination of A, B, and C is common to all the three ways "oit" is used. Wittgenstein referred to this phenomenon as family resemblance and this characteristic of word usage is, I suppose, a vital component of Wittgenstein's theory of languge games.

    So far so good.

    Now, anyone who's knows even just the basics of philosophy will agree to the following,

    4. Oit = A AND B [from 1 above]
    5. Oit = B AND C [from 2 above]
    6. Oit = A AND C [from 3 above]

    Basically a word's, here "oit", definition consists of all the properties together (hence AND) that are essential to it.

    However, if we replace the AND with an OR, we get,

    7. Oit = A OR B [from 1 above]
    8. Oit = B OR C [from 2 above]
    9. Oit = A OR C [from 3 above]

    Put simply, I'm trying to explain why family resemblance is a feature of languages, words to be precise. People, for some reason, replace a very important logical operator AND in definitions with the other logical operator OR. For this reason, words as they're used tend to lack a unifying theme, i.e. an essence is missing!

    Why do people do this (use OR instead of AND)?

    My best guess is that people directly encounter properties instead of words and so, for example, when someone tells me that there's an object with four legs which people use to sit on, I can't from that information alone, tell whether the object is a chair OR a sofa. In other words, the sofa and chair are indistinguishable from this particular combination of properties (four legs + people sit on it). Basically, whenever I see a person sitting on something, I instinctively think of the word "chair" and if I'm an philosophically untrained layman, I will most likely label this something as a chair. This is why, in my humble opinion, family resemblance is a linguistic phenomenon and this is also why words seem to be devoid of essence.

    What does this mean for Wittgenstein's much beloved theory of language games?

    One and only one thing: Words are being (mis)used, their usage is in violation of the criteria of a good definition. This simply means, to my reckoning, that words definitely do possess an essence but due to the fact, as herein described, that they're being (mis)used with complete disregard of definitional criteria (OR instead of AND) it creates an illusion of an absence of essence which Wittgenstein falsely believes is real (Language games/family resemblance).

    @Banno, mind if you take a look at this?

    A penny for your thoughts.
  • Banno
    24.9k
    The original Wiki article I wrote.
  • Cheshire
    1.1k
    What does this mean for Wittgenstein's much beloved theory of language games?TheMadFool
    It means Wittgenstein is correct that words mean things in a context. Which is why we string them together in different ways. Expecting to isolate a word and some how extract every possible way it could exist in a context is an irrational activity. Was some one doing this at some point?
  • Streetlight
    9.1k
    Have you ever considered actually reading Wittgenstein instead of creating innumerable treads on him based on your quarter baked wiki-gleaned understanding of him?

    The reduction of 'family resemblance' down to a series of propositional clauses is so far away from what Witty had in mind the only thing to say about the OP is that, as with every thread you've made on Witty, you've simply made shit up and pretended like what you've said has anything at all to do with him.
  • Banno
    24.9k
    Yep, but there is a hint of something better in the OP. Definitions by genus and differentia being replaced by definitions in conjunctive normal form is a start, at least Mad noticed that aspect. But he hasn't noticed the open ended nature of family resemblance; that a given CNF will not be able to account for additions to the family.

    The glaring error is in Mad thinking that - if I understand correctly - a family resemblance would be insufficient because it does not set out the essence; but of course rejecting the notion of an essence is exactly what the notion of family resemblance does.

    We use words correctly despite, not because of, having at hand a suitable genus and differentia. Hence:
    words definitely do possess an essenceTheMadFool
    ...Nuh.

    So some credit is due, but Mad missed the most important bit.
  • TheMadFool
    13.8k
    The original Wiki article I wrote.Banno

    :up: Great article! Well written!

    So we've both hit upon the same idea (AND replaced by OR in definitions), I'm honored, but you remain unconvinced that this violation of definitional criteria is the real culprit that causes words to be used in such a fashion that no common thread (essence) is found to run through all the ways in a particular word is used.

    I don't see why you object to my "explanation" for the linguistic phenomenon of family resemblance. If I say the oit (hypothetical word) is defined in terms of the properties A OR B then anytime I see either A OR B, I'll think oit. This is the only logical explanation for family resemblance, no?

    It means Wittgenstein is correct that words mean things in a context. Which is why we string them together in different ways. Expecting to isolate a word and some how extract every possible way it could exist in a context is an irrational activity. Was some one doing this at some point?Cheshire

    While you're spot on regarding the importance of context to meaning (ambiguity of a word's meaning is resolved by looking at the context in which they appear), I don't think language game or family resemblance has anything to do with context

    Wittgenstein is quite clear about where he stands on the notion of essence, an integral aspect of definitions outside his universe. He claims that words lack essence but for that to be true, the properties that are part of the definiens of a word must be taken together as a logical conjunction but family resemblance can only ever be if the logical conjunction is erroneously replaced with a logical disjunction.

    You see the problem, right?

    When Wittgenstein studies words for their essence, he uses the standard criteria of good definitions which requires the logical conjunction (AND) but when he develops the concept of family resemblance, he relies on the logical disjunction (OR). Double standards if there ever was one. Family resemblance is an actual linguistic feature only with logical disjunction (OR) but that breaks the standard meaning of definitions which employs logical conjunction (AND).

    ...rubbish.Banno

    Can you have a look at my reply to Cheshire. Much obliged.
  • Banno
    24.9k
    Can you have a look at my reply to Cheshire. Much obliged.TheMadFool
    doesn't seem to be even on the same cricket pitch, let alone playing the same game.

    ↪Banno :clap: :up:180 Proof
    Cheers. I think it better than the present article; but it is original research, so not suitable to Wikipedia.
  • TheMadFool
    13.8k
    ↪Cheshire doesn't seem to be even on the same cricket pitch, let alone playing the same gameBanno

    Why? Cheshire is saying exactly what you're saying - language games are real and so is family resemblance. However, as I explained, this isn't so. Family resemblance is an artifact of bad philosophy, the precise error being committed being loose terminology as becomes possible when logical elements of definitions are overlooked, glossed over. The logical boo-boo people make is substituing AND with OR. Once we understand as we have here that family resemblance is simply misuse of words, a cardinal sin in philosophy, we can rest easy. After all, in the simplest sense, why found a philosophy on a mistake?
  • TheMadFool
    13.8k
    Have you ever considered actually reading Wittgenstein instead of creating innumerable treads on him based on your quarter baked wiki-gleaned understanding of him?

    The reduction of 'family resemblance' down to a series of propositional clauses is so far away from what Witty had in mind the only thing to say about the OP is that, as with every thread you've made on Witty, you've simply made shit up and pretended like what you've said has anything at all to do with him.
    StreetlightX

    Hi StreetlightX. Long time no see. You haven't changed a bit! :up:
  • Banno
    24.9k
    Cheshire is saying exactly what you're saying - language games are real and so is family resemblance.TheMadFool

    No, he isn't. "Context"? FFS.
  • TheMadFool
    13.8k
    No, he isn't. "Context"? FFS.Banno

    :ok: We can stop the discussion for now. I'll post if I can think of anything interesting. Merci beaucoup for your comments!
  • Banno
    24.9k
    However, as I explained, this isn't so. Family resemblance is an artifact of bad philosophy, the precise error being committed being loose terminology as becomes possible when logical elements of definitions are overlooked, glossed over. The logical boo-boo people make is substituing AND with OR. Once we understand as we have here that family resemblance is simply misuse of words, a cardinal sin in philosophy, we can rest easy. After all, in the simplest sense, why found a philosophy on a mistake?TheMadFool

    Have you understood that this is a misrepresentation of Wittgenstein?

    Have you read https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/wittgenstein/#LangGameFamiRese ?

    Did you grasp it?

    Here:

    It is here that Wittgenstein’s rejection of general explanations, and definitions based on sufficient and necessary conditions, is best pronounced. Instead of these symptoms of the philosopher’s “craving for generality”, he points to ‘family resemblance’ as the more suitable analogy for the means of connecting particular uses of the same word. There is no reason to look, as we have done traditionally—and dogmatically—for one, essential core in which the meaning of a word is located and which is, therefore, common to all uses of that word. We should, instead, travel with the word’s uses through “a complicated network of similarities overlapping and criss-crossing” (PI 66). Family resemblance also serves to exhibit the lack of boundaries and the distance from exactness that characterize different uses of the same concept. Such boundaries and exactness are the definitive traits of form—be it Platonic form, Aristotelian form, or the general form of a proposition adumbrated in the Tractatus. It is from such forms that applications of concepts can be deduced, but this is precisely what Wittgenstein now eschews in favor of appeal to similarity of a kind with family resemblance.
    How does that square with your OP?

    And what, @Cheshire, do you think it has to do with context?
  • Cheshire
    1.1k
    ↪Cheshire doesn't seem to be even on the same cricket pitch, let alone playing the same game.Banno
    Probably an accurate assessment. Under the impression the meaning of game was essentially a context. Is the irony of a discussion about language being least intuitively decipherable particular to my "rules" of information word sounds.
  • Cheshire
    1.1k
    No, he isn't. "Context"? FFS.Banno
    Nah. I kind of am. Like, in your article you ignore the non-Euclidian triangle with "straight lines", but we still know what a triangle on a ball looks like..
  • Banno
    24.9k
    What?

    I didn't mention black cats in the article either. Should I do a re-write?

    Or you could choose to present something relevant.
  • Cheshire
    1.1k
    You see the problem, right?TheMadFool
    Nope. Might as well be a different language. I'll check tomorrow though.
  • Cheshire
    1.1k
    Could have sworn I was agreeing.
  • Banno
    24.9k
    Seems we have a miscommunication, then. Must be something to do with context...

    As in, you're playing tennis with a cricket bat.
  • Cheshire
    1.1k
    I take being on the court a good start,
  • Streetlight
    9.1k
    You haven't changed a bit!TheMadFool

    Neither have you. You still haven't read a word of Wittgenstein yet persist in posting threads about him.
  • Banno
    24.9k
    ~~

    Excuse the tone. I'm a bit pissed at the "Wittgenstein is wrong 'cause I haven't read him" posts.

    Philosophy is difficult. If you are going to start a thread, do some work first.
  • Streetlight
    9.1k
    But he hasn't noticed the open ended nature of family resemblance; that a given CNF will not be able to account for additions to the family.Banno

    Nor that thinking in terms of 'properties' is the exact thing that the PI was pitched against, no matter how much one rejigs one's concepts of "properties". The entire emphasis on action and 'doing' is missed. Which only someone who has not read a single word of the PI could possibly do.
  • Cuthbert
    1.1k
    In explaining a concept one approach is to look for necessary and sufficient conditions of its application. What is X ('justice' for example)? Let's say that X is Y ('justice is the will of the stronger'). Oh, but here is something A that is X and that is not Y. And here is something else B that is Y and that is not X. OK, well let's fix our definition and say that X is Y or Z. But here comes C that is X but is not Y-or-Z and then there is D that is Y-or-Z but is not X. And so on. It's a Socratic method. The idea is that you can pin down the concept by specifying the conditions exactly. It's about thinking, not merely looking. Looking at how people use the word 'justice' may tell us something about how unwise people can be but it will reveal little or nothing about justice.

    That previous para is the approach that W is questioning. Suppose we cannot (and we often cannot) find the necessary and sufficient conditions. This is not because we are failing to think hard enough, but because those conditions simply do not exist. Well, they may exist. But we have no reason to assume that they must exist. It's about looking, not (merely) thinking.

    Still, W may have been mistaken. I think the OP is raising that possibility (polemically). Was he mistaken? Perhaps we've given up too early on the Socratic method. Perhaps the 'family resemblance' imagery is intellectual laziness: a celebration of blurred vagueness where we should be insisting on sharp accuracy. I tend to think not.
  • Banno
    24.9k
    Good account.

    Perhaps we've given up too early on the Socratic method.Cuthbert

    it interests me how many times Socrates reached a similar conclusion to Wittgenstein; that there was no suitable account of whatever was being analysed; aporia. It sometimes seems we took two millennia to find out why.
  • Streetlight
    9.1k
    It's a common misunderstanding that Witty is an advocate for 'vagueness' or somesuch. Rather, he reckons that we continually or often look for 'exactitude' in the wrong place. My favoute example he gives is of someone saying 'wait for me roughly there'. And then he has some hypothetical idiot trying to specify exactly where 'there' is: its boundary, how far 'roughly' should extend from the point that is specified and so on. But of course, the non-idiot will know very well that when someone says 'wait for me roughly there', the idea is that one waits where they can be found again without too much hassle. The idiot here is the philosopher (or a particular kind of philosopher, I'd rather say). As Witty puts it, there's nothing vague about it. It's only when we have a false idea of 'the exact' that his take on language seems to brook the 'vague'.

    PI §87: "The signpost is in order a if, under normal circumstances, it fulfils its purpose"; §88. "If I tell someone “Stay roughly here” - may this explanation not work perfectly?"; §98: "On the one hand, it is clear that every sentence in our language ‘is in order as it is’. That is to say, we are not striving after an ideal, as if our ordinary vague sentences had not yet got a quite unexceptionable sense, and a perfect language still had to be constructed by us. - On the other hand, it seems clear that where there is sense, there must be perfect order. —– So there must be perfect order even in the vaguest sentence".

    There's a mathematical analogy to be drawn here. The idea is that language does not function as a well-ordered set. Every use of language is a matter of partial ordering: §97: "We are under the illusion that what is peculiar, profound and essential to us in our investigation resides in its trying to grasp the incomparable essence of language. That is, the order existing between the concepts of proposition, word, inference, truth, experience, and so forth. This order is a super-order between - so to speak - super-concepts". But concepts and words are singular. they respond to, and arise from, particular lived situations. And words and meanings cannot be mapped onto some trans-historical order that could be clarified once and for all. In every case it must be asked: does that word fulfil its purpose? And if so, it's exact as it can be.
  • TheMadFool
    13.8k
    No, he isn't. "Context"? FFS.Banno

    Context matters in re ambiguity i.e. a given word has more than one distinct meaning e.g. "beam" in the two different contexts, one structural engineering and the other sunlight, don't mean the same thing. Note here that word ambiguity doesn't imply the absence of an essence. There's an essence to a light beam and a wooden beam.

    However, Wittgenstein's family resemblance is a different animal. It implies there's no essence to words. Context in this case refers to the form of life - the language game - a word participates in. So, for example, taking Wittgenstein's own example, the word "game" is not necessarily disambiguated when I use it for chess or solitaire. The word "game", Wittgenstein claims, has the same meaning and this underpins the idea of family resemblance - there's a, intriguingly, fragmented/partial essence.

    As you can see, context is a notion that's integral to both ambiguity and family resemblance although they refer to different things. In ambiguity (puns?), a context disambiguates a word. In family resemblance this doesn't happen.

    Where Cheshire and you concur and what I have an issue with is that both of you rely on the notion of context albeit not in the same sense. Needless to say Cheshire is referring to context as it applies to family resemblance as described above. About this, I've already made my thoughts as clear as I could in the preceding paragraphs.
  • Metaphysician Undercover
    13.1k
    So we've both hit upon the same idea (AND replaced by OR in definitions), I'm honored, but you remain unconvinced that this violation of definitional criteria is the real culprit that causes words to be used in such a fashion that no common thread (essence) is found to run through all the ways in a particular word is used.TheMadFool

    You've reversed the causal relation TheMadFool, portraying effect as cause. In natural language use most words are used prior to receiving definitions, and people use words prior to learning definitions. So words develop meaning without being defined. Due to the differences in the ways that the same word is used, "the meaning" a word develops has differences within, similar to family resemblances.

    Since words are used without definitional laws as to how they must be used, and prior to having their meanings defined, it is incorrect to say that "violation of definitional criteria is the real culprit that causes words to be used in such a fashion that...". In reality, words are simply used, and develop meaning from usage. And, since the particular situations in which they are used vary due to differences in circumstances, the meanings developed for the same word, will vary as well.

    This is why we cannot assigned essentials to meaning in natural language use. The accidentals of the particular circumstances, within which the words are used, influence the meaning which the words develop, so that there is always accidentals inherent within the meaning.
  • TheMadFool
    13.8k
    Excuse the tone. I'm a bit pissed at the "Wittgenstein is wrong 'cause I haven't read him" posts.Banno

    My humble apologies. I know you're a Wittgenstein fanboy and it might please you to know this thread was written with you in mind. You, however, haven't critiqued my views as expressed herein to my satisfaction. That's unfortunate because I was hoping to be proven wrong since I'm sympathetic to Wittgenstein's idea that philosophy may be hostage to language i.e. some features of language may generate what Wittgenstein calls pseudo-problems - issues that seem to be philosophical but are in fact like the dents/small depressions around nail heads in wood, more about the tool, the hammer (here language) than about nails or wood (here philosophy). I suppose I got the analogy right but I'm still quite unsure what Wittgenstein really wants to say. Some help, anyone?

    Socratic methodCuthbert

    In explaining a concept one approach is to look for necessary and sufficient conditions of its application.Cuthbert

    vaguenessCuthbert

    As explained in the OP and subsequent comments, I want to understand why people use words (Wittgenstein) in ways that result in the linguistic phenomenon which Wittgenstein calls family resemblance. One reason, among probably many others, for this is if people misunderstand what meaning/definition is. They erroneously believe that definitions are disjunctions (OR) of essential properties of the class of objects being defined instead of their conjunctions (AND). How else could I refer to, say, a naval exercise in the Pacific ocean as a war "game" and also children's hide-and-seek as also a "game".

    If what I say is true and it seems likely that it is, Wittgenstein's family resemblance is all said and done language misused i.e. to continue with the hammer-nail (see my reply to Banno) analogy, we have on our hands a bad carpenter (human error) and not a tool (language) issue. On this view, Wittgenstein's theory of langusge games, family resemblance and all, boils down to making a philosophy of bad philosophy. It's like laying the blame for a poorly constructed chair, clearly due to an untrained carpenter (nonphilosopher), on the tool (language). The bottom line is this - Wittgenstein has made a philosophy of linguistic and, some might even say, logical mistakes made by ordinary people. Isn't that like logician building a logical system based entirely on fallacies, formal and informal? :chin: Hmmmm.

    It's a common misunderstanding that Witty is an advocate for 'vagueness' or somesuch. Rather, he reckons that we continually or often look for 'exactitude' in the wrong place. My favoute example he gives is of someone saying 'wait for me roughly there'. And then he has some hypothetical idiot trying to specify exactly where 'there' is: its boundary, how far 'roughly' should extend from the point that is specified and so on. But of course, the non-idiot will know very well that when someone says 'wait for me roughly there', the idea is that one waits where they can be found again without too much hassle. The idiot here is the philosopher (or a particular kind of philosopher, I'd rather say). As Witty puts it, there's nothing vague about it. It's only when we have a false idea of 'the exact' that his take on language seems to brook the 'vague'.

    PI §87: "The signpost is in order a if, under normal circumstances, it fulfils its purpose"; §88. "If I tell someone “Stay roughly here” - may this explanation not work perfectly?"; §98: "On the one hand, it is clear that every sentence in our language ‘is in order as it is’. That is to say, we are not striving after an ideal, as if our ordinary vague sentences had not yet got a quite unexceptionable sense, and a perfect language still had to be constructed by us. - On the other hand, it seems clear that where there is sense, there must be perfect order. —– So there must be perfect order even in the vaguest sentence".

    There's a mathematical analogy to be drawn here. The idea is that language does not function as a well-ordered set. Every use of language is a matter of partial ordering: §97: "We are under the illusion that what is peculiar, profound and essential to us in our investigation resides in its trying to grasp the incomparable essence of language. That is, the order existing between the concepts of proposition, word, inference, truth, experience, and so forth. This order is a super-order between - so to speak - super-concepts". But concepts and words are singular. they respond to, and arise from, particular lived situations. And words and meanings cannot be mapped onto some trans-historical order that could be clarified once and for all. In every case it must be asked: does that word fulfil its purpose? And if so, it's exact as it can be.
    StreetlightX



    :joke:

    I'll need some time to process what you said. Muchas gracias though!
  • Cheshire
    1.1k
    You see the problem, right?TheMadFool
    You are accusing him of putting a foot on the scale of (not)essence by using an unrealistic standard for maintaining it and yet acknowledging a more open standard in a tangential matter? Words don't have an essence; they have community usage and agreed upon translations. As well as their particular appearance in a game. Which I maintain is a clumsy word for context until either clearly refuted or I begin to make sense of this black book I purchased in misplaced optimism that I understood the English language; many years ago.

    Where Cheshire and you concur and what I have an issue with is that both of you rely on the notion of context albeit not in the same sense. Needless to say Cheshire is referring to context as it applies to family resemblance as described above. About this, I've already made my thoughts as clear as I could in the preceding paragraphs.TheMadFool

    I'm thinking about the context of poetry which couldn't exist without the open ability to manipulate words meanings subject to the other words that are surrounding them. Limiting context to saw or saw is kind of misleading and kind of not. What if I saw the saw through the beam? What am I doing or seeing? Looking at a tool under a light or have I strapped a tool to a workable material and proceeded to cut both in half? If the speaker means the latter they will be poorly understood. Unless they are in a well lit room in the business of manufacturing saws and needed a process to stabilize the operation. We say it all the time that things must make sense. Things without sense fail to obtain as the most learned say more correctly to each other.

    I'm sympathetic to Wittgenstein's idea that philosophy may be hostage to language i.e. some features of language may generate what Wittgenstein calls pseudo-problems - issues that seem to be philosophical but are in fact like the dents/small depressions around nail heads in wood, more about the tool, the hammer (here language) than about nails or wood (here philosophy)TheMadFool
    They weren't; but they are now as a result of posing the question.
  • TheMadFool
    13.8k
    You are accusing him of putting a foot on the scale of (not)essence by using an unrealistic standard for maintaining it and yet acknowledging a more open standard in a tangential matter? Words don't have an essence; they have community usage and agreed upon translations. As well as their particular appearance in a game. Which I maintain is a clumsy word for context until either clearly refuted or I begin to make sense of this black book I purchased in misplaced optimism that I understood the English language; many years ago.Cheshire

    :chin: How so? My explanation is able to account, albeit only in a simple way, for the linguistic entity Wittgenstein calls family resemblance. In fact I feel more confident after discussing the matter with you and others that my explanation is the best one among others if such exist. The logical connective AND that links all the properties that go into essence-based definitions is being swapped with the logical connective OR by non-philosophers i.e. almost all people, statistically speaking. It's as simple as that. This, as you know, is bad philosophy. Ergo, my contention that Wittgenstein has converted bad philosophy into philosophy. Sacré blue!

    That said, it would indeed be a grave error to ignore Wittgenstein's views on how language and philosophy affect each other. For instance, it would be the heights of stupidity to look for games' essence. We already know "none exist" but that comes with a caveat - this is a situation that occurs not because essence itself is meaningless but because people not exposed to the rigors of logic and definition use words with complete disregard for philosophical rules.

    This problem has its roots in the beginnings of language. Back then no one had established criteria for real thinking, logic & philosophy were in their infancy and couldn't be brought to bear on the issue. Heck, just having words for water, food, danger, basic necessities to be precise was so empowering that very no/little attention was given to using words properly (focus on essence) in a philosophically acceptable manner.

    This defect was exposed by none other than the father of Western philosophy, dear ol' but deceased Socrates - I have a feeling that his whole life was spent agonizing over the lack/absence of essences to words. Every conversation he had with randoms didn't end well at all. Nothing happened that could be described as a breakthrough, all Socrates discovered was words lacked an essence, no definition for ideas like virtue or justice satisfied all parties.

    What does this mean?

    Socrates anticipated Wittgenstein but the latter misconstrued word misuse (nonphilosophical) as implying that words were missing an essence. The former, on the other hand, realized correctly in my humble opinion that the first order of business for philosophers was/is/will be to, not look for essences, something Socrates himself was deeply concerned with, as none can be found. Au contraire, Socrates' mission, if we could refer to philosophizing as that, was to demand change - we are to employ the two greatest tools humans posses (logic & language) with utmost care and precision and all will be well.

    My two cents worth!
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