Immorality is subjective,
yes but subjectivity is objective,
not in a irrational sceme of perception,
perception is irrational and implies imminence,
but judgement of any system or a priori relation of phenomenon exists in any rational or metaphysical or at least epistemological contradiction to an abstract and empirical concept such as being, or to be, or to occur in the thing itself or of the thing itself.....
Does this actually make sense to anyone? — intrapersona
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