• aRealidealist
    125
    At the very beginning of his “Ethics”, Spinoza proposes or gives two definitions for the term of “substance”; the first being, “that which is in itself”, & the second being, “that of which a conception can be formed independently of any other conception”, i.e., what is conceived through itself.

    The first problem (1) with Spinoza’s two definitions of “substance”, in relation to his overall philosophy, is the consideration that, by definition, a conception cannot itself be something, or, that, which is in itself. So the question thus arises, what’s the relationship between conception & “that which is in itself”/“that of which a conception can be formed independently of any other conception”, i.e., between conception & “substance”? If this relationship is that of a mode to substance, then this would necessarily & automatically make his “substance” something which is ultimately mental; since, according to him, “modes exist in something external to themselves, and a conception of them is formed by means of a conception of the thing in which they exist” (Part. 1., Prop., VII, Note II.), meaning that we can only form the conception of a mode by means of a conception of the thing in which it exists (i.e., without the conception of it, we can’t have any conception of any mode), yet, conception is a mode of thinking, & so it presupposes in conception a mental thing in which it exists & not an extended thing; which then consequentially excludes the possibility of his definition of “substance” being able to explain the reality (as opposed to its mere ideality [its definition only as appearance]) of extended phenomena (as he pretends to have done past Descartes), as no mental form, subject or substance can rationally/logically be maintained to posses extended properties or predicates.

    Moreover, the second problem (2) with his definitions of “substance” occurs if it’s claimed that the mode of conception isn’t a mode of “substance”, per se, but is that of its “attributes.” Since this already contradicts his very first definition of “substance”, in as much as he’s explaining the dependent reality of the mode of conception through another other than “that which is in itself”, i.e., through another other than the independent thing or “substance” upon which the reality of modality depends; that is, in his explanation of the dependent reality of the mode of conception he’s using another, i.e., an “attribute”, to form a conception of “that of which a conception can be formed independently of any other conception”, i.e., of the independent thing or “substance” upon which the reality of modality depends, which is a blatant contradiction.

    Lastly, my third problem (3) with Spinoza’s definition of “substance” (for this one I’m only considering his first proposed definition), is its blatant & inexcusable nominalism; in merely claiming that “substance” is “that which is in itself”, he doesn’t actually explain what “that” is, which is in itself, in as much being “in itself” isn’t a thing or object, but a determination of them, & so its mere nominal assertion leaves us without any clue of whatever that is, which is in itself, i.e., he’s only asserted its reality in name (nominally).
  • 180 Proof
    15.3k
    So given these three "problems" you've staked out in Spinoza's Ethics, Part 1 Of God ..., what's your point exactly?
  • aRealidealist
    125
    With all due respect, if one isn’t incompetent & were to actually peruse the objections to Spinoza in this, my thread, my point should be very obvious... Spinoza’s definitions of “substance” (& what he bases thereon) are irrational/illogical & flawed; & so are to be rejected. You’ve got a problem with it? Peruse the thread, bring on a counter-argument.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    I pretty much need only to refer to part. 1, in as much as if one destroys the basis, the whole edifice built upon it collapses. So in regard to my objections, pretty much forget any other part of the “Ethics” beside the first.
  • TheWillowOfDarkness
    2.1k


    You're confusing substance with modes. Spinoza' s point is to only assert reality with substance. It offers no determination of modes itself. For that, we must name modes in question.

    So Spinoza agrees substance cannot be the definition of a mode. In your terms, modes are not the first or second being, so speaking of doesn't help us identify any mode.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    I’m not confusing modes & substance. Moreover, Spinoza grants reality to both of them, not just one, you’re wrong; thus he states in the “Proof” of prop., IV, “nothing is granted in addition to the understanding, except substance and its modifications. So, you see, he grants reality to both, he just has one as being dependent on the other (he grants ultimate reality to one & not the other [a distinction of his that I’ve acknowledged in my O.P.]). So I’ve never claimed that substance is the definition of a mode, as you believe I have, when you say, “substance cannot be the definition of a mode”, but have merely pointed out that the definition of one is necessarily dependent on that of the other‘s.
  • TheWillowOfDarkness
    2.1k


    The point was never that he didn't grant reality to both (acomist speech aside, of course), but rather they are not each other.

    Reality of substance is not reality of a mode. To speak about substance is to talk about what is not a mode at all. As such, substance cannot account for a mode in terms of the mode (e.g. what exists, how things are caused, which states are caused). It can only account for the self-defintion of a mode. (i.e. that a given mode is itself and can only be justified through itself).
  • 180 Proof
    15.3k
    my point should be very obvious... Spinoza’s definitions of “substance” are rationally/logically self-refuting & contradictory; & so are to be rejected. You’ve got a problem with it?aRealidealist

    I didn't say I had a problem with anything in my previous post. Clearly, your touchy tone indicates, you have a problem with me asking you to explicitly state the point of the OP. You've yet to make an argument worthy of a considered counter. And as definitions are not truth-claims or axioms (which is why they are introduced subsequently in the first place), whatever their logical status, Spinoza's system is quite rigorously coherent - or not - on some basis other than the one you may wish to discuss. Don't like his definitions of Substance? Ok. Can you improve on them? Well, if you can't, and on that basis Spinoza's system doesn't persuade you, well then move on. Maybe Leibniz or Frege are your jam. Or, maybe, you can competently demonstrate how, rather than merely leap to an assertion that, Spinoza's system collapses thereby refuting his conclusions. That's the point I'm interested in.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    “You've yet to make an argument worthy of a considered counter.” — If my tone really be, in your view, touchy, I should like to say that it’s nothing in comparison to your self-righteous & ever so subtle obnoxious tone: but that’s neither here nor there, friend. “.. yet to make an argument worthy of a considered counter.” Awfully subjective & opinionated; but, hey, the arguments are there, rationally/logically speaking; whether they’re “worthy” of your consideration is another matter. So I’ll leave that, again, to your own personal discretion.

    ”And as definitions are not truth-claims or axioms (which is why they are introduced subsequently in the first place), whatever their logical status,..” — Axioms are most definitely truth-statements. What are you talking about? The point is just that their introduced as self-evident, without requiring to be proven as true.

    ”Spinoza's system is quite rigorously coherent” — Well, like it or not, I’ve just shown that his first definitions or axioms, from the consideration of the relation between his own proposed terms of “substance”, “mode”, & “attribute”, to be conflicting.

    ”Or, maybe, you can competently demonstrate how, rather than merely leap to an assertion that, Spinoza's system collapses thereby refuting his conclusions.” Destroy, refute or invalidate the premise or premises of an argument, & the core of its conclusion will also be rendered thus. I don’t see where there’s any room for disagreement with this?
  • aRealidealist
    125
    ”The point was never that he didn't grant reality to both (acomist speech aside, of course), but rather they are not each other.” — My O.P. is not at odds with & clearly accepts & requires a distinction between the two. I don’t see your point here?

    ”As such, substance cannot account for a mode in terms of the mode (e.g. what exists, how things are caused, which states are caused).” — I don’t know if this supposed to be a part of your own philosophy, or your personal interpretation of Spinoza’s philosophy? But it’s clearly in conflict with Spinoza’s sentiments. He unequivocally defines a “mode” as what is accounted for through another thing, not itself, when he writes, ”By mode, I mean the modifications of substance, or that which exists in, and is conceived through, something other than itself.
  • 180 Proof
    15.3k
    ”And as definitions are not truth-claims or axioms (which is why they are introduced subsequently in the first place), whatever their logical status,..”Axioms are most definitely truth-statements. What are you talking about?aRealidealist

    What part of definitions are not truth-claims or axioms - given the parenthetical qualification that follows the word "axiom" - don't you understand, friend? (Or is English not your first language?) :brow:

    Destroy, refute or invalidate the premise or premises of an argument, & the core of its conclusion will also be rendered thus. I don’t see where there’s any room for disagreement with this? — aRealidealist

    And yet you've only taken issue with definitions. Not "premises" (i.e. propositions). Not axioms. Not deductions, from either axioms or propositions. Mere definitions which, again, do not convey truth values because they are not truth claims. I don't see any destroyed, refuted or invalidated "premises", friend; you still have all your work - if that's your task - ahead of you. :yawn:
  • aRealidealist
    125
    I’ve particularly misunderstood you there, you’re right; I’m low on sleep, I can admit that I’ve made a simple & unimportant mistake in that part of one of my replies to you, no big deal. Nonetheless, a definition can inherently be contradictory & so false & untrue in a rational/logical way, which is how I’ve critiqued Spinoza’s definitions. Go figure.

    “And yet you've only taken issue with definitions. Not "premises" (i.e. propositions). Not axioms. Not deductions, from either axioms or propositions. Mere definitions which, again, do not convey truth values because they are not truth claims. I don't see any destroyed, refuted or invalidated "premises", friend; you still have all your work - if that's your task - ahead of you.” — Though, again, if there’s contradiction or rational/logical inconsistency found in the definitions, on which everything else is based, such as the axioms, premises or propositions & proofs, then the entire edifice of deduction becomes undermined & questionable; & so there’s no need to argue against these latter determinations, when the founding definitions are known & acknowledged to be rationally/logically inconsistent or contradictory in the first place. A point that you seem to repeatedly overlook.
  • 180 Proof
    15.3k
    Though, again, if there’s contradiction or rational/logical inconsistency found in the definitions, on which everything else is based, such as the axioms, premises or propositions & proofs, then [ ... ]aRealidealist

    But "everything else" is not "based" on the definitions. :roll: They merely stipulate the terms of a demonstration or discussion. Since they are not truth-claims they don't convey truth-values and therefore do not contribute directly, or strictly, to the validity of arguments. QED, bro! :victory: In fact, stipulative definitions become clearer, even unpacked more precisely, as they are used throughout lengthy arguments. Nothing is built on them, but rather with them, like parts of a scaffolding or ornamental features of architecture, so to speak. Your contention on this point - the role of definitions - is simply mistaken and thus, on this basis, your broader assertion about Spinoza's system is incoherent.
  • Wayfarer
    22.4k
    The first problem (1) with Spinoza’s two definitions of “substance”, in relation to his overall philosophy, is the consideration that a conception cannot itself be something, or that, which is in itself, by definition.aRealidealist

    Can you elucidate why? This sentence is very strangely parsed. What are you challenging, exactly? I’ve read it half a dozen times and I can’t really parse it.

    I’ll put it another way: what do you think Spinoza means by ‘substance’? Do you think his conception of ‘substance’ is in some way self-contradictory? This seems to be what you’re saying, although again, very hard to grasp, exactly.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    Nothing is built on them, but rather with them” — On a closer consideration, to say that a structure isn’t built on but with something, is merely semantics, to quibble about words, something which I’m not into doing; so, again, the whole point is that either way the structure is built by means of them (these definitions), & couldn’t be without them, &, therefore, if the definitions are rationally/logically flawed, then whatever is either built with or on (following from) them, will also be as such. There’s no way around it. Thus basically Spinoza’s entire philosophy of “substance” is to be rejected, on grounds of rational/logical error in first principles.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    I’m challenging the internal or rational/logical self-consistency of Spinoza’s philosophy on “substance.” Now as to the parsing of my sentence that you’ve quoted, let me rephrase it: by definition, a conception is not itself something which is in itself (i.e., something which is independent, &, or, in itself). Moreover, the key to understanding my or the first objection is to review all of the parts of its paragraph, in relation to each other; & not solely that one part, over & over, which you’ve quoted.
  • creativesoul
    11.9k
    I’m challenging the internal or rational/logical self-consistency of Spinoza’s philosophy...aRealidealist

    In order to do this you must first accept the terms. You're attempting to deny them.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    Attempting to deny claims, as opposed to challenge them, is, in this particular instance, a matter of semantics & quibbling with words, which is of no significance. Either way, I’m opposed to their truth, with strict reason or logic supporting my opposition.
  • creativesoul
    11.9k


    Invoking the term "semantics" is quibbling with words. Whether or not Spinoza is guilty of incoherence is nothing but semantics. To be clear... his.
  • creativesoul
    11.9k
    I’m opposed to their truth, with strict reason or logic supporting my opposition.aRealidealist

    That's another matter altogether. The standard for being true is not the same as being incoherent. Which are you focusing on?
  • aRealidealist
    125
    Invoking the term “semantics” in order to describe some proposed difference in an argument or statement isn’t semantics, but, a real distinction, between that of meaning & a lack thereof. Your differentiation of “denying” as opposed to “challenging” claims can be said to depend on semantics because your distinction between these two terms, in this particular instance, has no real meaning of difference; since nowhere have you established, how “denying” the truth of a claim is somehow different than “challenging” the truth of a claim? Thus your distinction depends on semantics.

    Moreover, I don’t see how finding rational/logical, i.e., intellectual, incoherency or inconsistency & contradiction in Spinoza is necessarily a matter of semantics? Since his instances of error in reasoning on “substance” aren’t solely nominalistic, but are actual rational/logical contradictions & impossibilities.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    Incoherence, though, can be judged in relation to the standard of rational/logical truth, such that any instance of it possesses rational/logical falsehood. So, again, to be sure, my objections to Spinoza’s philosophy of “substance” are strictly rational/logical, & so require no other standard of truth (for their advancement) other than that of reason itself.
  • creativesoul
    11.9k
    You don't seem to know what you're talking about. Are you charging Spinoza with incoherence?
  • creativesoul
    11.9k
    Incoherence, though, can be judged in relation to the standard of rational/logical truth, such that any instance of it possesses rational/logical falsehood.aRealidealist

    Incoherence is judged solely and exclusively by self-contradiction. Coherent arguments are not self contradictory. Are you charging Spinoza with self-contradiction?
  • aRealidealist
    125
    Lol, “charging” Spinoza? If it’s not clear to you from the O.P. what my view on Spinoza is, then that’s really not my problem, so, yea,...
  • creativesoul
    11.9k
    I'm just trying to figure out what on earth you mean by "incoherent".
  • creativesoul
    11.9k
    I. By that which is self-caused, I mean that of which the essence involves existence, or that of which the nature is only conceivable as existent.

    II. A thing is called finite after its kind, when it can be limited by another thing of the same nature; for instance, a body is called finite because we always conceive another greater body. So, also, a thought is limited by another thought, but a body is not limited by thought, nor a thought by body.

    III. By substance, I mean that which is in itself, and is conceived through itself: in other words, that of which a conception can be formed independently of any other conception.

    IV. By attribute, I mean that which the intellect perceives as constituting the essence of substance.

    V. By mode, I mean the modifications of substance, or that which exists in, and is conceived through, something other than itself.

    VI. By God, I mean a being absolutely infinite-that is, a substance consisting in infinite attributes, of which each expresses eternal and infinite essentiality.

    Explanation—I say absolutely infinite, not infinite after its kind: for, of a thing infinite only after its kind, infinite attributes may be denied; but that which is absolutely infinite, contains in its essence whatever expresses reality, and involves no negation.

    VII. That thing is called free, which exists solely by the necessity of its own nature, and of which the action is determined by itself alone. On the other hand, that thing is necessary, or rather constrained, which is determined by something external to itself to a fixed and definite method of existence or action.

    VIII. By eternity, I mean existence itself, in so far as it is conceived necessarily to follow solely from the definition of that which is eternal.

    Explanation—Existence of this kind is conceived as an eternal truth, like the essence of a thing, and, therefore, cannot be explained by means of continuance or time, though continuance may be conceived without a beginning or end.

    The OP doesn't help. The contentious definitions are above. Can you make the case again, here and now? Which definitions are self-contradictory?
  • aRealidealist
    125
    Pretty much what everyone else means by that word. So, to be clear, genius, the question isn’t about what different kind of way that I’m using the word, but what kind of way whichever you’ve understood me to use it wherein it seems to differ the common meaning?
  • TheWillowOfDarkness
    2.1k

    Clearly your OP does not because it tries to assert we would use substance to define which mode was present.

    You've not understood Spinoza is speaking from a view of substance. The modes are justified by something different because an idea or conception of a mode is not enough to justify it, not because substance is capable of giving the specifics or form (e.g. tree, car, computer, train station, etc. ).

    To merely have a distintion "Tree in my backyard" is not enough to justify it. The distinction might not be true at all. When Spinoza says modes are justified by something else, he means there is a particular feature (self-defintion, being of the unity of reality), which justifies a given mode as part of reality over not. It is in this sense which modes are justified through something else. I need to do more than just posit a distintion of " Tree in my backyard" to justify such a mode.
  • aRealidealist
    125
    The O.P. does help, & in fact subtly addresses all possible logical objections, if one peruses it properly. Why have you quoted all of Spinoza’s definitions? In the O.P., I’ve already quoted all of those statements of his from the “Ethics” that I needed to contradict his view (& can be found referenced therein), & so most of what you’ve quoted is useless or irrelevant to my case. Moreover, the arguments are there in the O.P., so either directly quote a part of it & explain, where you find room for objection? Or just go on about your day.
bold
italic
underline
strike
code
quote
ulist
image
url
mention
reveal
youtube
tweet
Add a Comment

Welcome to The Philosophy Forum!

Get involved in philosophical discussions about knowledge, truth, language, consciousness, science, politics, religion, logic and mathematics, art, history, and lots more. No ads, no clutter, and very little agreement — just fascinating conversations.