Ok, so we both agree that we don't identify ourselves with any one part of ourselves, such as our beliefs or our desires, or any one particular belief or desire.

So, we should both also agree, contrary to your previous suggestion, that if your desires are part of you, and they cause some single belief of yours to change, then it does not follow that you have caused part of your belief to change through that desire that is part of you.

Although, perhaps my reply in which I simply stated that it doesn't follow, and your absence of explicit disagreement, meant that you'd already accepted this to be the case. (It might not commit the fallacy of composition, but it's a non sequitur nonetheless).