• David Hume’s argument against causal inferences and explanations, as well as his hugely influential “Problem of Induction;”
• Ludwig Wittgenstein’s rule-following argument, as well as Saul Kripke’s influential reformulation of it;
• W.V.O Quine’s argument for the inscrutability of reference;
• Quine’s holist arguments for the underdetermination of theories by evidence, as well similar arguments for forms of theoretical underdetermination made by J.S. Mill and expounded upon by Pierre Duhem;
• Thomas Kuhn’s arguments about underdetermination at the level of scientific paradigms;
• As well as many others, including Feyerabend’s “epistemological anarchism,” Goodman’s “new riddle of induction,” etc. — Count Timothy von Icarus
I want to nitpick these examples on the basis that they're underdetermined -- or, the flip side of "underdetermination" is confirmation bias. There's some reason for the selection of examples, and that selection of examples may justify what you're saying as "this is where I'm coming from", but how are we to know that these are good examples of underdetermination such that Aquinas or Aristotle or the pre-modern mind had answers to these questions if we just dropped the questions and read Aquinas, Aristotle, and the ancients only?
Reply to Objection 2. Reason may be employed in two ways to establish a point: firstly, for the purpose of furnishing sufficient proof of some principle, as in natural science, where sufficient proof can be brought to show that the movement of the heavens is always of uniform velocity. Reason is employed in another way, not as furnishing a sufficient proof of a principle, but as confirming an already established principle, by showing the congruity of its results, as in astrology the theory of eccentrics and epicycles is considered as established, because thereby the sensible appearances of the heavenly movements can be explained; not, however, as if this proof were sufficient, forasmuch as some other theory might explain them.
Summa Theologiae, I, q.32, a.1, ad 2
This is something I thought while reading MacIntyre. Yes, I see what you're saying, but like Heidegger you're sort of inventing a whole mindset that is "pre-modern", and justifying it with many quotes -- but at the end of the day if you haven't spoken to people from the pre-modern era then, my brother in christ, you cannot make claims about how pre-modern people think no matter how many texts you read from that era.
Nevertheless, I still think plenty can be said with careful analysis. And note, the topic is not super broad. We can have a quite good idea about how people thought about arithmetic in the past because they both wrote about it in detail and it's not a super broad subject. — Count Timothy von Icarus
I think another ameliorating factor is that there has been an unbroken, and fairly robust/large Thomistic and Neoscholastic tradition dating all the way back to that era. And so, even if we cannot say what the medievals would have thought, we can say what people steeped in their texts have generally thought, and it has generally been that underdetermination, while interesting and relevant in some areas, shouldn't support the radical theses that have been laid on it.
Your ameliorating factor ameliorates some doubts, but what if I think that Hume, Quine, Wittgenstein, Feyerabend, et al. , have a point? Do I just need to read more Thomas Aquinas to see the errors in my ways?
Yet if an epistemology results in our having to affirm conclusions that seem prima facie absurd, and if further, it seems to lead towards radical skepticism and epistemological nihilism, or an ever branching fragmentation of disparate “skeptical solutions” and new “anti-realisms,” that might be a good indication that it is simply a bad epistemology. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Knowledge of trees, an understanding of what a tree is, comes from the presence of this form in our intellect after it has been abstracted from the senses. — Count Timothy von Icarus
The result is that the underdetermination of sheer prediction becomes unanswerable, and skepticism reigns.* — Count Timothy von Icarus
This is something I thought while reading MacIntyre. Yes, I see what you're saying, but like Heidegger you're sort of inventing a whole mindset that is "pre-modern", and justifying it with many quotes -- but at the end of the day if you haven't spoken to people from the pre-modern era then, my brother in christ, you cannot make claims about how pre-modern people think no matter how many texts you read from that era.
It elucidates how we think, but it may not be the panacea of problems contemporary philosophy faces.
It looks soothing -- but ultimately when someone says that if we go back to some ancient or medieval thinker as the person who saw it all I think that we're kind of fibbing to ourselves. — Moliere
We're attempting to reconstruct the thoughts of people we can't talk to, yes. — Moliere
Likewise, there are a lot of people who bemoan how scientific anti-realism and arguments for science coming down to sociology and power relations has been used to pernicious effect on public debates on vaccine safety, global warming, GMO crops, etc., and are looking for solutions to underdetermination here. — Count Timothy von Icarus
That is, there are many who see these primarily as problems to be overcome, hence, old solutions should be interesting.
This is a wonderful essay, eminently relevant. Its work in clearing away canards cannot be overestimated. Its research and accuracy are commendable. It is long yet worthwhile and readable.
There is a good exchange on this point between Robert Pasnau
I would want to add that the realism quandary is also internal to "predictionism." The one who predicts is attempting to predict ad unum (towards the one, actual, future outcome). Without that future-oriented determinacy—whether actual or theoretical—the "predictionist" cannot function.
For myself I don't feel a deep need to argue for underdetermination because to me it explains why we go through all the hoops we do in making scientific inferences -- we don't just see the object as it is, we frequently make mistakes, and go about looking for reasons to justify our first beliefs while discounting possibilities not on the basis of evidence, but because they do not fit. This is inescapable for any productive thought at all -- but it has the result that we only have a tentative grasp of the whole.
Basically we don't need Hume's rendition of causation to point out that underdetermination is part and parcel to scientific practice: hence all the methodological hurdles one must overcome to be justified in saying "this is a scientific conclusion"; if it were something we could conclude without underdetermination then the scientists would be wasting their time, to my view.
Is it enough to say
"Modern philosophy has problems. These medieval thinkers didn't have these problems. This is because modern philosophy invented this problem for itself by stripping out all the thoughts which earlier thinkers relied upon in making such inferences. Therefore, we should adopt these earlier approaches, given the incredible progress knowledge has made -- there is a disconnect between ability, and these supposed modern problems that we can pass over by reading the older solutions" ?
Does that demonstrate having read the OP? — Moliere
My thinking is with respect to underdetermination and its value -- what I read were some solutions to underdetermination based on a generalization of a few select authors rather than what I might say in favor of underdetermination, for instance. So I wanted some sort of reason why these are even appealing at all? — Moliere
For myself I don't feel a deep need to argue for underdetermination because to me it explains why we go through all the hoops we do in making scientific inferences -- we don't just see the object as it is, we frequently make mistakes, and go about looking for reasons to justify our first beliefs while discounting possibilities not on the basis of evidence, but because they do not fit. This is inescapable for any productive thought at all -- but it has the result that we only have a tentative grasp of the whole. — Moliere
This does not imply that we come to know everything about the actuality of the form. Indeed, we will never know everything about any sort of thing. As Aquinas’ famously put it: “all the efforts of the human intellect cannot exhaust the essence of a single fly.” Nonetheless we know what a fly is. We understand it. It is this phenomenological experience of understanding that is the key datum which epistemology is supposed to explain. — Count Timothy von Icarus
If we accept abductive reasoning (inference to best explanation on available evidence - IBE) as leading to rational beliefs, is there really a problem? Such beliefs will, of course, be undertermined but that just means they don't comprise knowledge (in the strict sense).
Epistemology should be of practical use in the world, and in the real world we are nearly always deriving conclusions from limited information. IBEs are the practical ideal. — Relativist
This is a really interesting objection. Is an IBE underdetermined? Remember that the conclusion is not, "X is the explanation," but rather, "X is the best explanation." I actually don't see why underdetermination would need to attend IBEs.
I think this is a mistake to draw these philosophies towards some sort of anti-scientific agenda. At least, not when I speak on them they're not -- more like I'm very interested in the truth of how science actually works, and I don't want the cartoon version but to really understand what's going on (and, in that pursuit, noting how the goal is itself almost infinite, if not fruitless, in that we never really finish philosophizing about science where we finally have The Answer, but it still provides insight)
That empiricism and academic skepticism died out, in part perhaps because of these arguments, is why St. Thomas doesn't have them as major contenders to rebut in his epoch. — Count Timothy von Icarus
I am not sure about the rhetorical strategy of continually expressing perplexity about the doctrine you are expounding on or its use by people you are criticizing. I think though that in this case it actually suggests a real confusion it probably doesn't mean to imply. The argument for why form in the intellect (the intellect's move from potency to actuality) cannot be unrelated to its causes comes from the idea that: a. every move from potency to act has a cause in some prior actuality; b. causes cannot be wholly unrelated (i.e. arbitrarily related) to their effects (completely equivocal agents) or else they wouldn't be causes in the first place and what we'd actually have is a spontaneous move from potency to act. Form is just that which makes anything actual to effect anything at all, so form is, in one sense, always present in all causes (granted there are analogical agents). Arguing for this doesn't require question begging and presupposing the doctrine, it requires upstream premises (I see now that Klima appears to have hit on this in more detail). — Count Timothy von Icarus
1. Things do not happen “for no reason at all.” Things/events have causes. If something is contingent, if it has only potential existence, then some prior actuality must bring it into being. It will not simply snap into being of itself. Our experiences are contingent, thus they must be caused by something that is prior to them.
2. Being is intelligible, and to be is to be intelligible. Every being is something in particular. That is, it has a form, an actuality, that is determinant of what it is (as well as the potential to change, explained by matter). This actuality determines how a thing interacts with everything else, including our sense organs and our intellects. If this was not the case, interactions would be essentially uncaused, and then there would be no reason for them to be one way and not any other (i.e. random). — Count Timothy von Icarus
Broadly speaking, an argument from underdetermination is one that attempts to show that available evidence is insufficient to determine which of several competing theories is true. That is, many different theories might be able to explain the same evidence, hence any move to choose between theories must be “underdetermined,” i.e., not determined by the evidence. Within the class of such arguments, there are many that go a step further. These will often purport to show that for any body of evidence, there will always be an infinite number of different explanations that are consistent with that evidence. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Well, if extreme forms of underdetermination are successful, the scientist is wasting their time. — Count Timothy von Icarus
I didn't say they must lead that way, or even that they are designed to. I said that, historically, they absolutely have been used on both the right and the left to push such agendas. And yes, this is normally in a sort of corrupted, naive form, but some propagandists, radicals, and conspiracy theorists have a very good grasp on this stuff and have become quite adept at molding it to their causes. On the left, it's tended to be used more for things like casting doubt on all findings related to sex differences, or often the entire field of behavioral genetics. — Count Timothy von Icarus
No, not really. No mention of underdetermintion or realism. You're basically assuming that the OP is about something that it doesn't claim to be about, hence the ad hominem nature. The OP is about underdetermination and realism. That's the core. — Leontiskos
I would want to actually look at some of these arguments you are alluding to. For example:
1. We don't just see the object as it is
2. We frequently make mistakes
3. We frequently go about looking for reasons to justify our first beliefs
4. We have only a tentative grasp of the whole
5. Therefore, Underdetermination explains why we go through all the hoops we do in making scientific inferences — Leontiskos
I'm sort of saying "Well, what if the radical conclusions are true, after all? Maybe it's the realist philosophy of science which is wrong, then" — Moliere
Underdetermination is the theory that theories are not determined by the evidence, but rather are chosen in order to organize the evidence, and in some way are a selective pressure on which evidence is relevant to consider. — Moliere
1-4 are observations of human beings attempting to generate knowledge which fit with this belief -- basically an IBE, or really just a set of reasons for why I think underdetermination is a good default position. I.e. I don't have a deep quandary with denying causation as a metaphysical reality. That's because causation isn't real but how we decide to organize some body of knowledge.
Closer, or does that just read as more of the same to you? — Moliere
C. Therefore, Underdetermination is false
Basically my thought is that if anti-realism is true that has no effect on the value of science. It'd be like saying because dancing is not really a thing dancing is not valuable: no, the value question is separate from the descriptive question. If science doesn't "reveal reality", but rather makes us aware of which parts we are interested in manipulating it will still chug along regardless of the philosophical interpretation of the science.
If science doesn't "reveal reality", but rather makes us aware of which parts we are interested in manipulating it will still chug along regardless of the philosophical interpretation of the science.
Mkay. Then I suppose I'd just say that if it's been used by both sides so has the "realist" side been mis-utilized by the same actors.
And the medievals are the ones who have a better solution to underdetermination and realism, yes? Is the outline that I gave of @Count Timothy von Icarus 's argument entirely wrong, just unrelated whatsoever?
I think you're misunderstanding by "extreme forms" here. I don't mean anti-realism, but rather those sorts of "Boltzmann brain" type arguments that conclude that it is more likely, or just as likely, that the world will dissolve at any moment or radically alter its behavior, as to maintain in its reliable form. This implies that science isn't even likely to be predictive or "useful" on any consistent timescale, and I don't see how that doesn't make it a waste of time. — Count Timothy von Icarus
IDK, my reading would be that denials of any knowable human good ("moral/practical anti-realism," which is often aided by other forms of anti-realism) have tended to be destructive to politics, applied science, and ethics. That a key concern of contemporary politics, and a constantly recurring motif in our media is that our technology will drive our species extinct or result in some sort of apocalypse or dystopia because it is "out of anyone's control," suggests to me a fundamental problem with the "Baconian mastery of nature" when combined with anti-realism about human ends and the ends of science. If the aim of science is to improve our casual powers, but then we are also driven towards a place where we are largely silent on ends, that seems like a recipe for disaster, the sort of situation where you get things like predictable ecological disasters that will affect generations of future people but which are nonetheless driven on largely by unrestrained and ultimately unfulfilling appetites. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Phrenology was discredited because it was thought to be false. But if "true" and "false" are themselves just social endorsements, then truth cannot arbitrate between racist, sexist, etc. scientific theories. So, sure, both forms are open to abuse, but only one can claim that abuse isn't actually abuse, and that all science is about power struggles anyhow. If science is really just about power or usefulness, then there is strictly speaking nothing wrong about declaring sui generis fields like "Jewish physics" just so long as it suits your aims and gets you what you want. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Arguments from underdetermination is extremely influential in contemporary philosophy.
They have led to many radical, and seemingly skeptical theses.
These theses are perhaps more radical than we today recognize, when seen from the perspective of Enlightenment and pre-modern prevailing opinion.
These types of arguments were not unknown in the past, and were indeed often used to produce skeptical arguments.
The tradition most associated with these arguments, ancient Empiricism, sought skepticism on purpose, as a way to attain ataraxia.
Thus, we should not be surprised that borrowing their epistemology leads to skeptical conclusions.
Hence, if we do not like the skeptical conclusions, we should take a look at the epistemic starting points that lead to them.
Indeed, if an epistemology leads to skepticism, that might be a good indication it is inadequate.
The Thomistic response is given as one example of how these arguments used to be put to bed. I use it because I am familiar with it and because the Neoplatonist solution is quite similar. (But the Stoics also had their response, etc.).
I do think that solution is better, but the point isn't to highlight that specific solution, but rather the genealogy of the "problem" and how it arises as a means of elucidating ways it might be resolved or else simply understanding it better. — Count Timothy von Icarus
So, we don't "resolve underdetermination tout court," rather, we resolve some specifically pernicious instances of its application. And then, when it comes to scientific theories, the problem of underdetermination is less concerning because our knowledge isn't just a sort of statistical model, which if radically altered, has "remade the world." When we shift paradigms, it isn't that the old world of trees, fire, stars, and sound is revealed to be illusory, and a new socially constructed world has taken its place. We are still dealing with the same actualities as apprehended through new conceptual means. And crucially, while there might be many ways to correctly describe something, these will be isomorphic. When underdetermination becomes more pernicious is when it denies this isomorphism, such that scientific findings become "sociology all the way down" or "power struggles (will to power) all the way down." — Count Timothy von Icarus
Hence, if we do not like the skeptical conclusions, we should take a look at the epistemic starting points that lead to them.
Indeed, if an epistemology leads to skepticism, that might be a good indication it is inadequate. — Count Timothy von Icarus
This is a really interesting objection. Is an IBE underdetermined? Remember that the conclusion is not, "X is the explanation," but rather, "X is the best explanation." I actually don't see why underdetermination would need to attend IBEs. — Leontiskos
Forgive me if I misunderstand, but this sounds a bit fatalistic, to me - in that it seems to imply the quest for truth is irrelevant or hopeless. I suggest that we have a deontological duty to minimize false beliefs and maximize true beliefs. To do otherwise is irrational, and this includes embracing an explanation simply because he prefers it (there are exceptional cases where this might be appropriate, but I'll leave that aside).I think it depends on how far underdetermination is allowed to roll. If you pair these arguments, their reach is far greater than scientific theories. The term is most associated with the underdetermination of scientific theories, but as noted in the OP is has been used for substantially broader effect.
If some of these arguments go through, then the "best" explanation is not "the most likely to be true (as in, corresponding to reality)," but rather "the explanation I most prefer," or "the explanation society most prefers, given its customs." — Count Timothy von Icarus
I see your point, that by labelling X and IBE, underdetermination may not apply. Labeling it the explanation would be underdetermined. — Relativist
But I suggest that in the real world, we operate on beliefs, which are often formed by inferring to the best explanation from the facts at hand (background beliefs will unavoidably affect the analysis). — Relativist
Even if we were perfect at this, the resulting beliefs would still be "underdetermined", but ideally they will be our best explanation for the set of information we have. — Relativist
Agreed that we need to establish what "undetermined" means, when were talking about beliefs. I've been treating "underdetermined" as any belief that is not provably true (i.e. determined=necessarily true). Under this extreme definition, nearly every belief we have is underdetermined. I also agree that we ought not to believe something that has a 50% chance of being false.I would basically argue that some theory which is believed to be underdetermined is not believed. So if I think there are only two theories to account for a body of evidence and that both are exactly 50% likely to be true, then I psychologically cannot believe one over the other.
So I think we would need to get more precise on what we mean by "underdetermined. — Leontiskos
Most of our beliefs are not provably true, so I have labelled them IBEs. — Relativist
Underdetermination is the theory that theories are not determined by the evidence, but rather are chosen in order to organize the evidence, and in some way are a selective pressure on which evidence is relevant to consider. — Moliere
Now I'll go this far: If underdetermination, as a theory, leads us to be unable to differentiate between science and pseudo-science, and we believe there is such a thing as pseudo-science (I do), then we're in a pickle. — Moliere
Now I'll go this far: If underdetermination, as a theory, leads us to be unable to differentiate between science and pseudo-science, and we believe there is such a thing as pseudo-science (I do), then we're in a pickle.
But like you have a theory which takes care of underdetermination, within realist parameters I'd be able to defend our ability to spot pseudo-science on the social model of the sciences -- i.e. it's not just me, but all the scientists that say what science is. "Jewish Science" wasn't even as clear as phrenology; it was definitely a racist category for expelling Jewish scientists from the academy. That it resulted in expelling people who we still consider scientists -- like Bohr -- is an indication that it's not a science even if "Jewish Science" happened to get the aims desired after.
Good question. We have beliefs that follow necessarily from other beliefs/facts, so they're provable in that sense. It seems inescapable that we depend on some foundational beliefs. So nothing can be proven without some sort of epistemological foundation. What are your thoughts?So would you say that some of our beliefs are provably true? — Leontiskos
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