RussellA
If a person like me, in this concrete world can describe another concrete world, then I must have some access to it, and it cannot be absolutely separate. — Metaphysician Undercover
The spatial temporal conditions of one must be similar to the spatial temporal conditions of the other, implying that there is a connection between them. — Metaphysician Undercover
Metaphysician Undercover
Kripke showed how give truth conditions for modal claims using Tarski's semantics. — Banno
The concrete approach is one interpretation among many. — Banno
You are not describing this other concrete world, you are describing what this other world could be like as a concrete world. — RussellA
Call this the concretist intuition, as possible worlds are understood to be concrete physical situations of a special sort. — SEP
In the same way that between the fictional world of Middle Earth there is no causal, spatial or temporal connection to our world other than in our mind. — RussellA
RussellA
A name is not like a tag, though a tag is, in some ways, very like a name. — Ludwig V
I find that remark almost impossible to understand. Such understanding as I have of it rests on my knowledge of who and what Aristotle is. — Ludwig V
I've puzzled about this a great deal. Can you explain the difference to me? — Ludwig V
RussellA
Therefore the description is of what the concrete possible world is like, not of what it could be like. — Metaphysician Undercover
That's a very significant connection. Don't you think so? — Metaphysician Undercover
Metaphysician Undercover
Yes, the mind is central.
There is a causal, spatial and temporal connection to the fictional world of Middle Earth, through books, films, etc.
But there is no causal, spatial or temporal connection to an actual world of Middle Earth, as we have no knowledge about it having any mind-independent existence. — RussellA
RussellA
We produce a fictional idea, a possibility, then to make it fit within the possible worlds semantics, we assign concrete existence to it. — Metaphysician Undercover
frank
One last word on intensionality for Abstractionism, concerning that paragraph about methodology.
We saw earlier how speaking roughly, the intension of π is the rule that tells you what π’s truth-value would be in every possible world. At issue now is, which is to be master?
The concretist starts with worlds as given (from AW1) and treats intensions as derivative: once we have worlds, an intension is just a way of tracking truth across them.
The abstractionist reverses the order. Intensionality, understood as truth-at-a-world, is taken as basic, and possible worlds are introduced as whatever is needed to make sense of modal variation.
My own intuition is that the disagreement is not about whether worlds or intensions exist; it’s about which we take as explanatorily primary. Seen this way, the two positions, concrete and abstract, are complementary rather than contradictory: they are different “perspectives” on the same metaphysical landscape. That it's more a difference about how we say it than about what is being said. — Banno
Relativist
Thanks for the clarification, but it provides a good reason for many of us to reject it - since it depends on coherence theory of truth. Obvious objections:The truth of a possibility in language can only be established using a coherence theory...
Therefore, if we can coherently talk about the possibility of Hobbits, Trolls and Orcs, which we can, then this is sufficient to ensure the truth or falsity of our statements. — RussellA
Relativist
Another way to ask this: what is it that establishes the truth of the statement, "there is a possible world in which Hobbits, Trolls and Orcs exist"
— Relativist
Why isn't a copy of the book(s) enough? — Ludwig V
There's a lot you and I disagree about, but I 100% agree on what you said here.That, I believe is why concretism is unacceptable. We produce a fictional idea, a possibility, then to make it fit within the possible worlds semantics, we assign concrete existence to it. This is unacceptable, to arbitrarily, or for that stated purpose, assign concrete existence to something completely imaginary. It demonstrates quite clearly the deficiency of possible worlds semantics. To conform we must accept what is unacceptable. — Metaphysician Undercover
Ludwig V
1. What you learnt about Aristotle enables you to refer to Aristotle - to use the tag. (Remember - what preserves the causal chain is people using the tag.)1 - For me, the name Aristotle is a tag to what I learnt about Aristotle.
3 - There is a reality to Aristotle in 350 BCE, even though I may not know what it is. — RussellA
That's perfectly clear. Thank you.iii) “There are possible concrete worlds other than ours” presupposes that there are other concrete worlds
iv) “Possibly there are concrete worlds other than ours” does not presuppose that there are other concrete worlds — RussellA
No, we don't have to assign existence to it. All we have to do is to imagine or suppose that it exists.We produce a fictional idea, a possibility, then to make it fit within the possible worlds semantics, we assign concrete existence to it. This is unacceptable, to arbitrarily, or for that stated purpose, assign concrete existence to something completely imaginary. — Metaphysician Undercover
Quite so.There is no logical problem with imagining something as being actual and concrete. — RussellA
I wouldn't disagree with any of that or with the familiar point that none of those uses or benefits is a substitute for truth."May not a paranoid's delusions of persecution be frighteningly coherent? May not a patient's faith that a mere placebo is a wonder drug be therapeutically useful? Russell was quick to claim in opposition to Joachim that multiple systems of beliefs may be internally consistent, though incompatible with each other. Nietzsche had already suggested well before James that false beliefs may be not merely useful but indispensable for life. "
--Truth -PRINCETON FOUNDATIONS OF CONTEMPORARY PHILOSOPHY ; Burgess & Burgess, pg 3 — Relativist
That's true so far as it goes. But the existence of the book does establish that there is a fictional world in which.....The book establishes a fiction. We could examine this fictional world for coherence, and draw valid inferences if (and only if) it is, but the inferences are all qualified by, "within Tolkien's fictional world...". But no unqualified objective truths can be inferred. — Relativist
I agree that there is this difference between a fictional world and a possible world, that the possible world might or might not exist - become actual, if you will, but we know that the events in LOTR could not possibly take place. On the other hand, many stories seem entirely possible - and there are docudramas. Characterizing the verisimilitude that is required to persuade us to suspend our disbelief is not easy. Aristotle, if I remember right, uses a word that is translated as "plausible". Is that better?And critically- nothing here establishes the hobbit world (in toto) as anything more than a fiction, so calling it a "possible world" is misleading. — Relativist
Relativist
Yes, but the same could be said for any so-called "possible" world one entertains with the semantics. If I had my way, we'd distinguish between fictional and possible worlds.the existence of the book does establish that there is a fictional world — Ludwig V
Only if it pertains to the future, and is consistent with the history of the world up to the present, and everything else we know about the world.I agree that there is this difference between a fictional world and a possible world, that the possible world might or might not exist - become actual, if you will... — Ludwig V
Banno
That's the role of w₀. You answered your own question, I think.But that gives w₀ a special status that differentiates it from all the other possible worlds. I suppose, though, that one could point out that for someone in that different possible world in which he is called Barry would make the same claim, with the names reversed. So who a name refers to depends on what world one posits as the world of origin. My question is, whether the system can work without positing some world as the world of origin. — Ludwig V
I've again got "A nice derangement of epitaphs" in the back of my mind here. A reference is successful if the enterprise in which it is involved is a success.The idea that there may not be One True Account of reference seems very plausible to me. — Ludwig V
Yes.I am assuming that each possible world will have a similar recursion and therefore be capable as functioning as a world of origin. Yes? — Ludwig V
Banno
If Determinism is true, there can only be one actual world, meaning that there cannot be possible worlds. — RussellA
Banno
You pretend your already repudiated arguments were adequate. They are not.As I've shown... — Metaphysician Undercover
Banno
the inferences are all qualified by, "within Tolkien's fictional world...". — Relativist
"unqualified" is problematic; we can take this world, the one we are in, to be w₀ and then define truth simpliciter as true-in-w₀. And note thatin w₀ it is true that in Tolkien's world Frodo is a hobbit...The book establishes a fiction. We could examine this fictional world for coherence, and draw valid inferences if (and only if) it is, but the inferences are all qualified by, "within Tolkien's fictional world...". But no unqualified objective truths can be inferred. — Relativist
Yes. This is a different point, further complicating the issue; that since in the actual world Tolkien developed Frodo as a fictional character, we might decide that Frodo is necessarily a fiction - a fiction in any possible world in which he occurred. What this would mean is that were we to come across a small hairy man with nine fingers who was a friend to the elves and wizards, that would not be Frodo, because he is actual and Frodo is a fiction.And critically- nothing here establishes the hobbit world (in toto) as anything more than a fiction, so calling it a "possible world" is misleading. — Relativist
Banno
No!1. What you learnt about Aristotle enables you to refer to Aristotle - to use the tag. — Ludwig V
Yes! And that alone!(Remember - what preserves the causal chain is people using the tag.) — Ludwig V
Ludwig V
I don't disagree. I made the connection because I thought the analogy/similarity between fictional worlds and possible worlds made it easier to understand the latter. I underestimated the difference.Yes, but the same could be said for any so-called "possible" world one entertains with the semantics. If I had my way, we'd distinguish between fictional and possible worlds. — Relativist
Well, "it is possible" does pertain to the future, because it is in the future that the possibility resolves. If it is possible that I win the race, I win or lose the race in the future. Past possibilities - "it was possible" - are, by implication resolved and I have already won or lost. I do think that, like probabilities, the future is part of the concept.I agree that there is this difference between a fictional world and a possible world, that the possible world might or might not exist - become actual, if you will...
— Ludwig V
Only if it pertains to the future, and is consistent with the history of the world up to the present, and everything else we know about the world. — Relativist
It is tempting to agree that counter-factual is a possibility. But the game of alternative history suggests that a counterfactual does not contemplate a possibility, but an event, whether it is possible or not. "How would things be now if Hitler had won the war?" Since he did not, it is not possible that he did. Yet somehow we can contemplate that eventuality and build a coherent story from it.However, when entertaining counterfactuals about the past or present, the implication is that this counterfactual world could possibly have happened. But could it? This is analyzable and debatable. It's a very different debate if we're simply examining the coherency of a fictional world. — Relativist
I'm glad you agree with my answer. It gives me confidence that I'm not thinking rubbish.That's the role of w₀. You answered your own question, I think. — Banno
I wouldn't quarrel with that. I wish I could get hold of the article, but the only source I found wants £55 for a copy.I've again got "A nice derangement of epitaphs" in the back of my mind here. A reference is successful if the enterprise in which it is involved is a success. — Banno
So each world serves as the origin of its transworld identifications. Which world is the origin depends on which world we are in. Each world is the actual world in that world.I am assuming that each possible world will have a similar recursion and therefore be capable as functioning as a world of origin. Yes?
— Ludwig V
Yes. — Banno
I think that works for this case. But fictions are a varied bunch, so a story about a real or possible person in our world might well count as a possibility and what you say here wouldn't apply. What about stories that mix real and fictional characters and/or places?This is a different point, further complicating the issue; that since in the actual world Tolkien developed Frodo as a fictional character, we might decide that Frodo is necessarily a fiction - a fiction in any possible world in which he occurred. What this would mean is that were we to come across a small hairy man with nine fingers who was a friend to the elves and wizards, that would not be Frodo, because he is actual and Frodo is a fiction. — Banno
H'm. I'm working this out as I go. You have a point. But I'm inclined to say that other people would take me to be talking about Aristotle. I, on the other hand, don't know what I'm talking about. But there is an objectivity here. The interpretation of people in general determines what is the case, so it is not wrong to say my deviant use is wrong.What you learned is irrelevant. You heard someone use the word Aristotle, and you started to use the word; and crucially, you would be talking about Aristotle even if what you think you know about him were completely wrong. — Banno
But surely the causal chain is a chain of people learning to use Aristotle in that way. I agree that one person does not determine anything.(Remember - what preserves the causal chain is people using the tag.)
— Ludwig V
Yes! And that alone! — Banno
Yes. But the causal chain is a chain of people learning to refer to Aristotle correctly. Isn't it? What else could it be?If you overheard the bloke on the TV say that Aristotle Taught Alexander, and assumed he meant that Aristotle taught Alexander Graham Bell, and that was all you knew about Aristotle, you would be mistaken, and importantly, you would be mistaken about Aristotle. The reference works despite all you know about Aristotle being wrong. — Banno
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