Husserl does recognize the ability of indication to be independent of expression, but my sense is the thinks this is already intuitively obvious from everyday examples. Neither Husserl nor Derrida seem to expend effort defending this claim. — The Great Whatever
It seems to me that when Derrida emphasizes Husserl's purported need for indication to be extrinsic to expression, he's trying to paint Husserl as someone trying to preserve expression from a kind of contamination. So, analogously, an idealistic artist might want to say that social differentiation is extrinsic to taste. Though the artist would certainly agree that social differentiation can be understood without reference to taste, what he'd really be concerned about is establishing the existence of a pure realm of aesthetic appreciation which is not interwoven with social concerns. This seems to be the portrait of Husserl Derrida is trying to paint, except with meaning instead of taste. The emphasis is on the purity of expression, not the independence of indication. — csalisbury
The other is to ask what would happen if we take indication to be intrinsic to expression itself, if, by necessity, it 'contaminates' the purity that ought to characterize expression. Derrida clearly opts for this latter understanding: "Although there is no possible discourse without an expressive kernel, we could almost say that the totality of discourse is gripped by an indicative web." — StreetlightX
He also seems to speak of the transcendental reduction in such a way that he thinks that empirical reality 'falls to' it, or 'outside of it.' — The Great Whatever
I agree that showing that indication can't be disentangled from expression goes against what Husserl explicitly says. What I don't understand is why Derrida thinks this would be ruinous for the phenomenological project. — The Great Whatever
I can see this, but the discussion of time-consciousness then seems far more relevant than the discussion of expression, whose significance I still don't really understand. I know Derrida wants to show there is no pre-linguistic substratum of experience, and that the fact/essence distinction somehow maps onto the indication/expression distinction, and that these distinctions can't be made pre-linguistically, but thus far I only know that he claims these things, but neither why nor how.
What I don't understand is why Derrida thinks this would be ruinous for the phenomenological project. — The Great Whatever
The ideal objects themselves, however, do not indicate one another but are demonstrated from one another. — The Great Whatever
Indication falls outside the content of absolutely ideal objectivity, that is, outside the truth.
Here again, this exteriority, or rather this extrinsic characteristic of indication, is inseparable, in its possibility, from the possibility of all the reductions to come, whether they are eidetic or transcendental.
Having its "origin" in the phenomena of association and always connecting empirical existents in the world, indicative signification will cover, in language, all of what falls under the blows of the "reductions": factuality, mundane existence, essential non-necessity, non-evidence, etc.
Do we not already have the right to say that the entire future problematic of the reduction and all the conceptual differences in which they are declared (fact/essence, transcendentality/mundanity, and all the oppositions that are systematic with them) are developed in a hiatus between two types of signs?
And, as Fink has indeed shown, Husserl never posed the question of the transcendental logos, of the inherited language in which phenomenology produces and exhibits the results of the workings of the reduction.
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