• Dfpolis
    1.3k
    Most people would agree that there are many kinds of necessity – moral, physical, logical and metaphysical being examples. An action would be seen as morally necessary if one’s ethical system required that it be done. An event would be physically necessary if it were determined by the initial conditions and the laws of nature. A conclusion is logically necessary if it is validly entailed by the premises one accepts. Something is metaphysically necessary if it is required by the very nature of being.

    As Aristotle points out, terms may be predicated in three ways: univocally (with the identical meaning in each instance), equivocally (with unrelated meanings in the relevant instances) and analogically (with meanings that are partly the same and partly different in the several cases). Clearly, “necessary” does not have the identical meaning in moral and physical contexts; nonetheless, its meanings are related. So, it is analogically predicated.

    Medieval logicians distinguished different modes of analogical predication, two being the Analogy of Attribution and the Analogy of Proportionality. The paradigm case of the Analogy of Attribution is the use of “healthy” in the contexts of food, people and urine. Food is not “healthy” in the the same sense that a person is healthy. Rather, healthy food causes, or at least contributes to, personal health. Similarly, healthy urine is not in good health, but a sign of good health. In this type of analogy the base meaning of the term is the same, but the relation of the predicate to that meaning differs. It can be a property, a cause of that property, or a sign of that property. This is not what we see in the analogous predication of “necessity.”

    An Analogy of Proportionality occurs when each instance of a term bears the same relation to a differing base. For example, different instances of “good” are linked by an Analogy of Proportionality. The properties that make a road “good” (ample width, smoothness, durability, etc.) are not the properties that make a moral act “good” (justice, proportionality, etc.). Still, each kind of good is “proportional” to what it is predicated of. The properties that make something “good” are those that make it suitable to its purpose.

    I suggest that the various meanings of “necessity” are linked by an Analogy of Proportionality. In each instance, something is “necessary” if it is logically entailed by some set of premises, which I’ll call its “basis.” In the first paragraph I noted the basis of several kinds of necessity.

    Some consequences of this analysis are:
    1. Modal logic need not be a separate branch of logic. Rather modality reflects ordinary deduction restricted by the relevant basis.
    2. There is no need for the subjective construct of “possible worlds” to clarify the meaning of modality. Possible Worlds is subjective because no possible world can be observed and experienced other than the one actual world. Rather, possible worlds are imagined worlds that may or may not be logically consistent with respect to the relevant basis. Godel's work suggests that we cannot know which worlds are consistent, and so truly possible, and which are not.
    3. The modal signs "□" (necessarily) and "◇" (possibly) can easily obscure equivocations because their meanings are not fixed, but context sensitive, varying in proportion to the relevant basis.
  • Terrapin Station
    13.8k
    First, it's nice to see a longer post here that's well-written. You state a topic and follow through with it, explaining it in more depth, you define terms and give examples, there's a good logical flow to the post, etc. I wish writing like this would be the norm here.

    The only quibble I'd have is that your last section seems like a bit of jump, but compared to the way longer posts usually go here, it's not that big of a deal.

    Aside from that, I'm not sure that I agree with the last two points. "Possible worlds" can simply be seen as saying that something that is or was possible isn't/wasn't actualized. I think we can observe possibility in at least some cases. An example: I can observe that it is (or now was) possible for me to write the first sentence of my post with or without the word "First."

    Re the last point, I wouldn't say that any meanings are fixed, but I'd also say that conventional usage can make equivocations unlikely in some contexts, and it doesn't seem to me that necessarily vs possibly might easily obscure equivocations in modal logic. But maybe you'd have a good example of a way that could easily happen.
  • tim wood
    9.3k
    I suggest that the various meanings of “necessity” are linked by an Analogy of Proportionality. In each instance, something is “necessary” if it is logically entailed by some set of premises, which I’ll call its “basis.” In the first paragraph I noted the basis of several kinds of necessity.Dfpolis

    Which implies not-necessary with respect to another set of premises, and perhaps even necessarily-not with respect to even another set. Perhaps it's reasonable that if something can be not necessary or even necessarily-not, then it's not necessary - unless the unnecessary and necessarily-not can be somehow disqualified. But in that case it becomes simply necessary.

    I'm not arguing here; rather shining my feeble light in a direction and asking for guidance.
  • T Clark
    13.9k
    Most people would agree that there are many kinds of necessity – moral, physical, logical and metaphysical being examples. An action would be seen as morally necessary if one’s ethical system required that it be done. An event would be physically necessary if it were determined by the initial conditions and the laws of nature. A conclusion is logically necessary if it is validly entailed by the premises one accepts. Something is metaphysically necessary if it is required by the very nature of being.Dfpolis

    These examples seem like they're all the same. Aren't they really only saying "A (the necessary thing) implies B?"
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    First, it's nice to see a longer post here that's well-written.Terrapin Station

    Thank you.

    I think we can observe possibility in at least some cases.Terrapin Station

    Of course it is, nor was I suggesting the contrary. The point is that anything we actually know, we know from experiencing the one real world. Parsimony suggests that we do not add to the experiential basis of our knowledge (the one actual world) a set of object that can neither be experienced nor known to be self-consistent (possible worlds). This especially when we have an adequate foundation for modal concepts based on the world we can observe.

    it doesn't seem to me that necessarily vs possibly might easily obscure equivocations in modal logic.Terrapin Station

    That point is a result of a dialog I had with a modal symbolic logician about the cosmological argument. In it, the person equivocated on logical and ontological necessity insisting that a formally valid symbolic manipulation proved that cosmological arguments was unsound. My dialog partner was unable to see, or unwilling to admit, that "□" was being used equivocally.
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    Which implies not-necessary with respect to another set of premises, and perhaps even necessarily-not with respect to even another set.tim wood

    Quite possibly. I can easily envision a conflict between a claim of physical impossibility made by determinist and one of moral necessity made by a moralist maintaining free will.

    My guidance would be to clarify the basis of modal claims.
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    These examples seem like they're all the same. Aren't they really only saying "A (the necessary thing) implies B?"T Clark

    Not quite. Typically one says that the existential situation (A) necessitates B. What is really meant is that A and some basis implies B. That makes necessity analogously predicated. The similar part is implication, the different part is the basis of the implication.

    Also, A need not be a necessary thing. What is necessary is the relation between A and B, given the basis.
  • tim wood
    9.3k
    My guidance would be to clarify the basis of modal claims.Dfpolis

    Classify/clarify/categorize & etc. This isn't a rabbit hole (as practice has shown it often to be) but a nicely carved and ornamented portal into the same warren. But let's try this: within this context/framework, is everything resolvable? I believe Kant offered a solution, but his involved thinking through to a reasoned conclusion and then making a decision, very much the contingent enterprise of rhetorical logic. Do you have anything in the way of demonstration you're suggesting?

    E.g., should we kill Bob? Well, if all killing is wrong, then no. If murder is wrong but some killing right, then maybe. And if under our understanding of things, Bob should be killed, then yes. I'd like to think we can do better - do you see a way?
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    E.g., should we kill Bob? Well, if all killing is wrong, then no. If murder is wrong but some killing right, then maybe. And if under our understanding of things, Bob should be killed, then yes. I'd like to think we can do better - do you see a way?tim wood

    Well, I do think there is an objective basis for ethics, but that is a topic quite different from modality.

    I hinted at the basis I see above, in touching on the analogous nature of the good as the realization of intrinsic potential -- but that is a topic for a different thread.
  • Hanover
    12.9k
    Whether this applies or not, I don't know, but Anglo law nations adhere to interpretation by precedent, using prior cases as analogies to current cases. So if you're trying to determine what the law is to your situation, you look to how courts have ruled in the past to similar cases. The variations among fact patterns allow for significant argument and debate, so it is often unclear how a court will rule using the precedent and it leaves to the ingenuity of the lawyer to explain why the prior cases are or are not analogous . What that means is that the analogies do not necessitate certain results, but they allow for a certain amount of ambiguity and creativity.
  • tim wood
    9.3k
    The properties that make something “good” are those that make it suitable to its purpose.Dfpolis
    That would be "good for," yes? If we let yours go as a definition of the good, then lots of bad things become good.

    Well, I do think there is an objective basis for ethics.Dfpolis
    So do I. But there are those even here on TPF vehemently opposed to such a notion, although to be sure I have yet to see anything cogent from them - beyond mere claim and assertion.

    Presumably you can describe that basis briefly. If you can and if you care to, please do. I at last will read it with much attention.
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    What that means is that the analogies do not necessitate certain results, but they allow for a certain amount of ambiguity and creativity.Hanover

    I agree that most of our practical thought is based on reasoning by analogy. I discuss analogy at some length in considering the rules of evidence in my book. If there is interest I could post a discussion here.
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    That would be "good for," yes? If we let yours go as a definition of the good, then lots of bad things become good.tim wood

    One needs to look at the issue in context. What is locally good, may be evil in a larger context. Using a good poison to murder is morally evil. Why? Because it prevents the victim's self-realization. In my view rights are based on the conditions of self-realization, and so a violation of rights is evil because it precludes or inhibits self-realization.

    As a theist, I see human potential as God-given, and think that God would not sustain a potential in being that had no legitimate actualization.

    I will put a longer post together.
  • tim wood
    9.3k
    No need, you're admirably clear so far. In any case, simple is good for me.

    Question: would you argue that God is necessary for the argument so far, or would you allow it could be established on secure ground on belief alone, or possibility alone, or the ethical stance, i.e., reason, alone?
  • Theologian
    160

    I have been contemplating your post. I think we all agree it's an interesting one. I hesitate to say anything definite, as it deals with some quite technical matters with which I have at best a nodding acquaintance. Nevertheless, I would hate it to be said that I failed to rush in where angels fear to tread, so I am going to tentatively pitch a few thoughts to you - and to the forum at large.

    Depending on your response, the first of these may turn out to represent a significant issue, or alternatively, a trivial and pedantic one. I don't know.

    You say:

    In each instance, something is “necessary” if it is logically entailed by some set of premises, which I’ll call its “basis.”Dfpolis

    I think your point here works better if we eliminate the word "logically" from that sentence. It is often said that logic provides our paradigm for necessity, but this does not mean that all necessity is logical necessity. For example, it is also often said that causation is physical necessity. So (setting aside Hume) the impact of one billiard ball upon a second billiard ball renders the movement of the second ball necessary. But this is physical necessity, not logical necessity.

    I think you might further tighten the meaning of this sentence up by not only removing the word "logical" but replacing it with "certainly." Thus necessity becomes certain entailment.

    What do you think?

    Now we get to the part that I am most tentative about. Once you have this concept of necessity, I'm not entirely sure that the analogy of proportionality actually helps us. I don't disagree that certain entailment can be applied to different bases, but... so what? Especially if we take this concept of entailment to what seems to me to be its logical conclusion; namely that:

    1. Modal logic need not be a separate branch of logic. Rather modality reflects ordinary deductionDfpolis

    Incidentally, you may notice that by editing your quote carefully I have significantly changed its meaning: I cut off the end of the sentence above, which was "restricted by the relevant basis."

    But my point - or perhaps my question - here is precisely that there may be only one meaning of necessity: certain entailment. And the fact that we may apply this concept to different things does [Edit: Oops! I meant DOES NOT] suggest multiple meanings. Any more than the fact that we may use the natural numbers to count different things - applies, oranges, rubber nipples, and so on - implies that the numbers take on different meanings depending on what is counted. 2 is 2 regardless of what is being counted. We just have the one concept being applied to different domains.

    But... given that I've never actually studied modal logic, it's possible that there are horrible, horrible problems with what I just said that would be glaringly, idiotically obvious to a modal logician.
  • Theologian
    160
    I discuss analogy at some length in considering the rules of evidence in my book.Dfpolis

    Just out of curiosity, what book?

    Link?
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    Question: would you argue that God is necessary for the argument so far, or would you allow it could be established on secure ground on belief alone, or possibility alone, or the ethical stance, i.e., reason, alone?tim wood

    I think everything I've said in the thread, including the existence of God and the nature of the good, can be established by reason alone.
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    It is often said that logic provides our paradigm for necessity, but this does not mean that all necessity is logical necessity. For example, it is also often said that causation is physical necessity. So (setting aside Hume) the impact of one billiard ball upon a second billiard ball renders the movement of the second ball necessary. But this is physical necessity, not logical necessity.Theologian

    I agree that logical necessity is not physical necessity. Still, I think that physical necessity can be explicated by appealing to logical necessity. I see logical necessity as formal, as what links validly derived conclusions to the premises from which they are derived. So, a conclusion can be false, but still a logically necessary consequence of some set of premises.

    The motion of the ball is dictated by initial conditions and the laws of motion. So, I think it is reasonable to say that an event is physically necessary if we believe that it is a consequence of we understand to be the laws of nature and the initial conditions. Further, when we are asked what we mean by "consequence" we are likely to frame our response in terms of logic.

    Still, I think you've hit on an important point. There are many physical problems for which we cannot logically deduce a solution. Examples are as simple as the gravitational interaction of three bodies and as complex as atmospheric and oceanic turbulence. That is why I hedged and said "we believe that it is a consequence" rather than saying "it is a logical consequence."

    So, perhaps a formulation would be that we see a consequence as necessary if we believe it follows from the operation of the basis. (I have no objection to your "certainly." I just think that if something really follows it certainly follows.) I do think it is important, if math and logic fail us, that we admit that we are falling back on belief.

    I don't disagree that certain entailment can be applied to different bases, but... so what?Theologian

    I wrote this post because I was unable to convince a symbolic logician that his supposed rebuttal of the cosmological argument was based on an equivocal use of the "□" (necessarily) symbol. Specifically he was confusing the intrinsic necessity of God's existence with the contingent necessity of a finite being having an essential cause. Thus, I thought necessity worth reflection.

    And the fact that we may apply this concept to different things does [Edit: Oops! I meant DOES NOT] suggest multiple meanings.Theologian

    My experience with the equivocating logician suggests that it does and we need to be alert to its precise nuances.

    Cardinal numbers are predicated univocally to sets of different things. Claims of necessity need not be. A determinist might say that an act of killing was necessary, while a libertarian moralist might deny that -- with neither realizing that they were using "necessary" equivocally -- as expressing distinct concepts.

    Just out of curiosity, what book?Theologian

    God, Science and Mind: The Irrationality of Naturalism
  • tim wood
    9.3k
    What is
    the intrinsic necessity of God's existenceDfpolis

    Does that mean that a given argument presupposes as ground God's existence, absent which presupposition the argument is without force/truth/validity?
  • Dfpolis
    1.3k
    What is

    the intrinsic necessity of God's existence
    tim wood

    It means that God's existence is not contingent on anything extrinsic.

    The argument is a proof of God's existence I've posted elsewhere. I'll post it here.
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