Is it not the case that any given theory, belief, or statement that is semantically inconsistent (contradictory) is false by definition? — Philosopher19
In general, I agree with you, although in the history of philosophy there has always been a dispute about what is semantically inconsistent and what is not. But keep in mind, some say that there can be no fixed rules for the correct, i.e. absolutely correct use of language. They might say that logic is based on the law of contradiction, but contradiction exists only in words.
Can you give me an example of something that is contradictory, yet not impossible or false at the same time? — Philosopher19
There is a theological doctrine or model of God that says that He is a divine simplicity, which means that He has no distinct properties. Omnipotence would be the same property as goodness. Or to put it in other words: being omnipotent and being good would be different senses for the same property:
"Our minds can only have a clear grasp of intellect, power, goodness, etc., as distinct attributes, since they exist distinct from one another in the things of our experience. But in God they exist as one: God’s power is His intellect, which is His goodness, and so forth[.]" (Feser, Edward - The last superstition: a refutation of the new atheism)
For our mind such a teaching is contradictory, but nevertheless not necessarily false and impossible.
Hegel apparently raised contradiction to an ontological principle:
"For Hegel, all finite concepts are inherently ‘contradictory’ because they are always partial and one-sided and usually derive their meaning from opposed ideas." (The Hegel Dictionary - Glenn Alexander Magee)
"Hegel also often speaks not just of thought as involving contradiction, but reality as well." (The Hegel Dictionary - Glenn Alexander Magee)
So there are at least different views on this topic.
Is non-existence not devoid of the property of being/existing? — Philosopher19
Here the mistake is committed to regard non-existence or nothingness as a real, actually available thing. But the non-existence simply does not exist. So non-existence or nothingness is
neither devoid of the property of being/existing
nor not devoid of the property of being/existing. I think you are making the mistake of reification. You seem to equate the nothing with the something. You probably believe that there is no thing without its corresponding word and no word without its corresponding thing and therefore the thing designated by nothing must also be something. But I hope you agree with me that it is really quite childish to conclude from the existence of a concept or word the reality of the thing that has been thought in the word. Accordingly, non-existence cannot be understood as an imperfect existence or as the most imperfect existence. To understand it nevertheless in such a way is clearly semantically and logically inconsistent.
Right, and if you tried to perceive of a round-square, what happens? You fail because round-squares do not exist in any way, shape, or form. Which means that they do not have the property of existing in any way, shape or form. — Philosopher19
Indeed, there are those who clutter ontology with entities such as
The False. Thus, they believe that false propositions also hang around in an extra-temporal realm, that is, somehow exist. This is just to be said by the way. You are right, I cannot successfully perceive a round square, yet the false idea of one exists in my mind. Or to accommodate you, I say that the false idea has the property of existing in my mind, even if this sounds semantically weird. But a visually round square can never exist. That is true.
You do not say a triangle is not a shape (or does not have the property of being a shape) just because the semantic of 'shape' encompasses the semantic of 'triangle' (as well as all other shapes). — Philosopher19
I agree.
The semantic of existing/existence encompasses all meaningful things (including the object X which you perceived). — Philosopher19
What do you mean by meaningful things? Do you want to say that existing beings exist, which would be a pure tautology? Do you understand by existence the epitome, the totality of all being (all existing things)?
I do not think rejecting existence as being a property to be a semantically consistent move. — Philosopher19
Can you make a case for this, perhaps using Kant's thalers as an example?
"A hundred real thalers do not contain the least coin more than a hundred possible thalers" (A599/B627, AW 822a).
"We do not add anything to a concept by claiming that it exists. Thus, Kant mentions the 100 thalers. Kant says that the real and possible thalers must have the same number of thalers in order that the concept be the concept of that object. If there are more thalers in the real thalers, then the concept and the object would not match. So, we do not add thalers when we mention that the thalers exist."
http://www.thatmarcusfamily.org/philosophy/Course_Websites/Modern_S10/Notes/28-Kant5n.pdf
Still, I think you should put your argument into some kind of syllogistic framework so that people can see more clearly what you're getting at.
I don't think that from your own definition of everything you can clearly and unquestionably prove that God exists. I certainly think that definitions contain only concepts of our head, but that our head grasps many things that do not exist. Therefore, I do not see how to come from your concept of everything to the existence of God.
The conclusion from the existence of a concept to its real existence ist just false. From this language superstition then quite logically the ontological proof for the existence of God has emerged. One abstracted further and further, one generalized further and further, until one arrived at the empty or absolute concept of essence or being; and this very emptiest concept should still be brought under the concept of cause, the existence should be cause or effect of being. It is really inconceivable.
I also agree with Michael Martin's following critique of the ontological proof of God:
"Mackie has suggested that even if one grants that existence is a property and is part of the intrinsic greatness of God, the argument does not work. Anselm appears to suppose that the fool's concept is that of
a nonexisting being than which no greater being can be conceived, where the entire italicized phrase represents the content of his concept. Given this concept and the assumption that existence is part of the intrinsic greatness of God, the fool does indeed contradict himself. However, the fool need not and should not conceptualize the situation in this way. The fool may simply have the concept of
a being such that no greater being can be conceived. He does not include nonexistence within the concept, although he believes that the concept has no application in the real world. Viewed in this way, the fool does not contradict himself. But can the fool afford to admit that existence is part of the concept of a being such that no greater one can be conceived of? There is no reason why he cannot admit this, for he can still insist that such a concept has no application to reality. To put this in a different way, the argument can be undermined by noting the following: Suppose the fool admits that existence is a property of an entity, that existence would add to the greatness of any being, and that God is a being such that no greater being can be conceived of. The fool could say definitionally that God exists in reality. Or to put it in still a different way, "God is nonexistent" would be a contradiction. But the fool would not be forced into admitting that God
in fact exists in reality and not just in his understanding. He could insist that the following is not a contradiction: "It is not the case that God exists" or "There is no God."
To say something exists definitionally and not in fact means that by virtue of the way a certain concept is defined, existence is part of the concept. For example, one can define a Loch Ness monster as a large sea animal that inhabits Loch Ness and define a
real Loch Ness monster as a Loch Ness monster that exists in reality. Such a creature would then exist definitionally, since existence would be part of the definition of a real Loch Ness monster. But whether a real Loch Ness monster
in fact exists is another question. Further, it would be a contradiction to say that a real Loch Ness monster did not exist. But one would not be uttering a contradiction by saying: "It is not the case that a real Loch Ness monster exists" or "There is no real Loch Ness monster." Similarly, if the fool said that God exists definitionally but not in fact, he would in a way be acknowledging Anselm's point that God exists by definition while insisting that the concept that includes existence need not apply to the real world." (Michael Martin - Atheism)
You are not existence nor do you sustain it (contrary to solipsism). You are sustained by existence. You are sustained by God. You are contingent on God. Existence = the existence of God and only God. — Philosopher19
You did not write this to me, but I still have a question. Doesn't that imply that everything that is not God does not exist, thus is nothingness?