Isn’t a law of logic defined by its origin rather than by how general it is? In other words, a law of logic comes from Reason itself, not like a law that describes the behavior of physical things (a law of nature).

If that’s right, then there’s nothing in the concept of a law of logic that demands it must always apply universally. That just seems to be a characteristic these laws often exhibit, but it’s not essential to what they are. So, if it turns out that all proposed logical laws have exceptions, it doesn’t mean there are no laws of logic—only that they are more specific than we once thought.

I’m new here, but I’m curious to know what evidence there is that my mind is the same as my body. The quote from Maurice Merleau-Ponty didn’t offer any evidence. I haven’t read any of his work, so maybe he does make a case elsewhere, but it wasn’t in the quote I saw.