I'm not convinced mind is a thing, an existent. There are mental activities, and the phenomenon of consciousness. What we lack is a pardigm for analyzing the phenomena.what the questions in the OP seek to do, is to ask what kind of 'thing' or object an 'immaterial mind' can be, presumably to argue that, as it can't be meaningfully defined, then it must be 'taken off the table'.
In my view, those questions cannot be answered, but that doesn't mean that mind is not real, nor that it's a product of matter or something that can be explained in materialist terms. However, if the question is posed in those terms, then that is the conclusion it seems to point inevitably towards. — Wayfarer
By my reckoning, an actual row of 3 actual ducks is a material state of affairs (a thing). It is more than its parts (duck, duck, duck) because it includes the spatial relations among the ducks.If you've got three ducks, it's nice to get them in a row.
And then you've still got three ducks but now you've got a row as well. Assume the ducks are material. — unenlightened
I don't understand how anyone can deny that, other than through blind faith.The mind is not independent of the body. — David Mo
Assuming you're referring to ontological emergence, not just epistemological, how can you justify believing this? Every conceivable case of ontological emergence is explainable as a function of previously unknown properties of the underlying substance.In my opinion it is a problem related to emergence. Different levels of matter cannot be explained by the "lower" ones.
Philosohers conceptually "objectify the mind", and my questions are directed at those who believe the mind is an immaterial object.There are many other such conundrums suggested by your post, which I would sidestep or subvert by pointing out that the mind is never itself an object of perception (unlike the body and brain, which clearly are). The mind is not something which we can stand outside of, and therefore objectify. That's why eliminative materialists believe it must be eliminated. — Wayfarer
The hard problrm of consciousness.What are these 'hard questions'? — A Seagull
Physicalism is often dismissed based on the inability to answer some hard questions. I wanted to show there are also challenging questions for immaterialism.If the mind is immaterial:
— Relativist
.. it's not. — A Seagull
There are endemic problems in the cost of education. If we, through government action, simply foot the bill, costs will skyrocket further. Compare this to healthcare: because most prople had insurance, prices skyrocketed because insured consumers were insulated from actual costs. The same thing could happen with higher education.I favor doing something to make it easier to climb out of poverty, particularly regarding higher education and vocational schools, but we have to be careful to avoid exacerbating the endemic problems.A guy, who's grades from chemistry are nearly perfect and who's enjoying studying this subject - can't afford higher education (such as college or even high school because his family lacks of money). That will leave him with a very small amount of jobs which he could be doing in the end. Instead of working in a lab (with the chance of discovering something) he'll be given a mop or a position for a cashier. My question is - is that something we should be taking care of? Or is it a problem so extended it's simply not worth dealing with? — Craiya
The immaterial aspect of the mind (the power to choose and attend, aka aware) has no specific "place;" however, experience tells us it generally attends to data processed by and encoded in the brain -- and we have a reasonable idea of how data gets there. — Dfpolis
Even if your mind is not spatially located, your brain is - and there's clearly a strong connection between your mind and your brain. Your mind doesn't obtain sensory input from your next door neighbor's brain. This suggests some sort of ontic connection between something located in space and something that is not. (There is an ontic connection between positively charged and negatively charged particles).It seems to me the only plausible explanation is that the physical processes cause immaterial mental states. — Relativist
They inform the mental states, but to inform is not to be an efficient cause. Plans may inform a process, but they do not cause the process. — Dfpolis
OK, this suggests mental states contingently arise. Nevertheless, the relevant mental states do not arise without the physical input.I agree that neural processes are physical. Whether or not mental states arise from them depends on whether or not we attend to them. The act of attending to them is an act of awareness (aka the agent intellect). — Dfpolis
Sensory perception ceases when there's a physical defect. This is strong evidence that the physical processes are in the causal chain even if there are immaterial dependencies as well (like attentiveness).at the fundamental level, physical-mental causation has to be taking place.
— Relativist
Why? — Dfpolis
Laws of nature describe physical-physical causation. Mental-physical and physical-mental is unique.Immaterial does not mean physically impotent. The laws of nature are not made of matter; nonetheless, they effect physical transformations. — Dfpolis
How does the physically encoded data get into an immaterial mind? How do you explain the dependency on physical processes? If you deny the dependency, why does input cease when the equipment is defective? It seems to me the only plausible explanation is that the physical processes cause immaterial mental states. The attentiveness issue doesn't refute this, it just adds a switch.This implies there is a causal chain from the physical to the mental.
— Relativist
No, it shows that the agent intellect can transform physically encoded data to concepts (mental intentions). — Dfpolis
I suggest that we can deduce this is the case.I do not assume that "electro-chemical signals produce the related mental states." — Dfpolis
But surely you must agree that sensory perception originates in physical processes, and ultimately mental states arise. This implies there is a causal chain from the physical to the mental. This suggests that somewhere in the chain, there is a final physical event followed by an initial (non-physical) mental event. There can be parallelism, but at the fundamental level, physical-mental causation has to be taking place. Mental causation entails the converse. I refered to this interface as a "transducer". It seems unavoidable if the mind is non-physical.I do not assume that "electro-chemical signals produce the related mental states." Following Aristotle, I see this as the work of the agent intellect, which acts in the intentional, not the physical, theater of operations. — Dfpolis
I have not deduced it, so I'm considering it a premise, for sake of discussion. Challenging it would entail a different discussion.I do not assume the mind is immaterial. I deduce — Dfpolis
As I said, the pain signal (in effect) reaches a transducer which produces the mental state of localized pain. Does this much sound plausible? If so, what is your specific issue?Yes, it does. How does this allow us to distinguish data on the sensor state from data on the sensed? — Dfpolis
Either that guy is a physicist doing a bad job of metaphysics, or that statement is incomplete. Laws of physics are typically described as equations, but it doesn't make sense to consider equations (alone) as the fundamental basis of the universe. The equations are not abstractions that exercise control over reality; rather they describe how material things behave.One guy I read suggested simply that the laws of physics are most fundamental. — Gregory
When a pain receptor is fired, the mind experiences it as the quale "pain". That is the nature of the mental experience. In effect, the signal passes through a transducer that converts the physical signal into a mental experience.how do I distinguish a signal indicating the existence of a condition causing pain from a signal that says only that a pain receptor is firing? Since they are one and the same signal, I do not see how I can. — Dfpolis
I am not arguing for solipsism. I take as a given that we are conscious of objects other than ourselves. Rather than questioning this datum, I am trying to understand the dynamics making it possible — Dfpolis
I suggest that it's a consequence of the neural connections being different. Consider how we distinguish the location of a pain in the left knee - it's a consequence of the specific connections from peripheral nerves to specific areas of the central nervous system, wherein we become consciously aware of the pain's location. Even after the pain is gone, the memory of the pain is unique from other conscious experiences. Visual and auditory information are also unique, and processed through unique neural paths, and this maps to conscious experiences that are also unique.I agree, but how does this allow us to distinguish body states from external states? — Dfpolis
It's a useful analogy in some contexts, but it may not be the best analogy for analyzing the ontology of mind. For example, we aren't going to find a physical structure that corresponds to a packet of data (from perception) or of decomposable information (like the logcal constructs that define a concept). That is not sufficient grounds to dismiss physicalism; it may just mean we need a different paradigm.Communication (including: data, encoding, code, message, transmission, conveyance, reception, decoding, information) is a good analogy for the sensation process if a physical (as opposed to only semantic) type is acknowledged. — Galuchat
I don't think it requires redefining "physical" and "natural", it means reconsidering the nature of our thoughts. A visual image is something distinct from the object seen, it's a functionally accurate representation of the object. In general, our conceptual basis for a thought is based on the way things seem to be, but the seemings may be illusory. It seems as if a concept is a mental object, but when employed in a thought, it may more accurate to describe it as a particular reaction, or memory of a reaction: process and feeling, rather than object.Physical" means now the reality it calls to mind now. Its meaning may change over time (and has), but the present paradigms are based on our conceptual space as it now exists. Changing paradigms involves redefining our conceptual space, and a consequent redefinition of terms such as "physical" and "natural." — Dfpolis
I agree with this, and suggest this may just mean we have a problematic paradigm. E.g. reference to "information" seems problematic, because information connotes meaning, and meaning entails (conscious) understanding - which seems circular, and it doesn' seem possible to ground these concepts in something physical. That doesn't prove mind is grounded in the nonphysical, it may just be an inapplicable paradigm.Like the problem of distinguishing self-data from object-data, this seems to intimate that we have a capacity to grasp intelligibility that is not fully modeled in our present understanding. — Dfpolis
Mankind has invented this forum. Problem solved.The threat I am referring to, is the inability for human beings to find activities that suitably pass the time. — Jhn4
What threat(s) to our existence are you referring to?when do we require new technology? When do we decide that the human race has reached stagnation and cannot collectively produce new 'content' to keep itself fresh?...
...I would argue that we are reaching that stage in history now, and that it poses a threat to our existence, and it is an emergency that needs tackling. — Jhn4
I think it's a product of the pedagogy of mathematics, physics, logic and some related fields. We're taught that triangles and laws of physics (expressed as equations) exist. This leads us to speak of them that way, and this leads to treating them as ontic, and not just as a manner of speaking.That’s right. The issue is this should be self-evident and the problem is people just don’t understand the words. — Zelebg
I disagree with describing it "narrow". It is parsimonious, but leaves nothing unaccounted for. It's reasonable to methodologically treat abstractions as independent existents, but that utility does not depend on an ontological commitment.Again, your definition of what exists is too narrow. — Wayfarer
you could explain it through a simple mathematical formula (time= distance/speed). And as such, we are back to abstracts. Mathematical abstracts.
Are they real? (Where do they come from, a priori.) How is this phenomenon even possible? — 3017amen
Mathematical models don't entail the independent existence of platonic entities.Does it really make more sense to suggest the relations exist independently, and the states of affairs that exhibit them have some sort of ontic relation to those platonic objects?
— Relativist
I believe so. Don't overlook the fact that the current model of the so-called fundamental constituents of matter, the so-called 'particle zoo', is a mathematical model. — Wayfarer
The definition of triangle is not impacted, just the ontology behind it. There are states of affairs that have triangularity among the constituents. We can mentally consider the property "triangular" while ignoring the other details of the object, but that doesn't require the abstract object "triangle" to be ontic. It's a semantic convenience, and has the utility of allowing us to do the math,but we can do the math witthout making an ontological commitment to them.what is the status of the definition? I would have thought that triangles would be discovered in all possible worlds, in other words, their reality is not dependent on our definition of it, but our definition of it must conform to the concept
Yes, I'm assuming a reality independent of the observing mind; i..e. I deny solipsism. But this belief is not a deduction, it's just an articulation of a component of our intrinsic (not deduced) view of the world. While it's possibly false, that mere possibility is not adequate grounds to undercut the belief in an external world - a belief that is directly derived from considering our hard-wired relation to that world., you're assuming a reality independent of any observing mind, but that assumption might be philosophically problematical, i.e. it might not be as self-evident as you're assuming it to be. — Wayfarer
Zero is second order: it is conceived as a negative fact, like removing the apples from a basket, one by one, ultimately leaving 0 apples. Negative facts are indirect - they don't tell us what IS, they tell us a subset of what isn't. One refers to 0 apples in this example only because of the psychological context - we're considering apples. Although the basket has no apples, it may contain oranges and orangutans. It is the indirect nature of negative facts that makes them second order.I see. If I understood you correctly then there are such things as second-order abstract objects e.g. tesseract. However zero and infinity are first-order abstractions in my opinion; so they should have concrete instantiations. — TheMadFool
Consider how the notion of infinity is manifested in your counting example. Counting is a process. There is no infinity at any identifiable step of the process. Rather, infinity manifests as the process itself, one that never ends - and process is not an existent. It's still a reasonable way to conceive of a potential infinity, but this conception doesn't work for an actual infinity - including a past infinity. A conception for an actual infinity cannot be some ongoing process. It would entail a COMPLETED process.I agree it can't be completed and my intuition on the matter may be off the mark but consider this: I sometimes see only part of a person, say when that person is behind a tree or low wall but that doesn't mean the person doesn't exist does it? — TheMadFool
If you mean this article, then it doesn't say that, and it would be pretty incredible if it did, because the best established cosmological model to date implies an infinitely extended universe without the assumption of an infinite past. Note that the article spends considerable time talking about inflation, which is less well established than standard Big Bang cosmology, but inflation doesn't imply what you claim either. — SophistiCat
At least you see it's different. I consider rational belief to require rational justification, and logical consistency seems inadequate as a rational justification. 90-dimensional cube analogues are logically consistent, but there's no rational basis for believing they exist in objective reality.As for your first order/second order abstractions, that's something completely different. I won't go further than just to say that I am not buying your epistemological construction. — SophistiCat
The first article showed that, according to accepted physics, spatial extension can only be infinite if there is an infinite past - that's why I focused on past time.I was talking about spatial extension. Simply put, if space is infinite, which seems plausible from what we know, and if the rest of it looks much like what we can see around us, which is very plausible, then there's your actual infinity (if by that you mean an infinite number of material objects). — SophistiCat
This does not apply to my claim. Sure, it's coherent - his statement entails no logical contradiction, but it circularly assumes the infinity exists, and it is that assumption that I challenge. The concept of infinity is a second order abstraction - an extrapolation of first order abstractions. (see the last paragraph of my last response to TheMadFool). A 90-dimensional analogue of a cube is an extrapolation of a cube. It could be described coherently, and consistent mathematical inferences could be made- nevertheless, this does not justify believing there exist objects of the world that correspond to it (there would actually have to exist 90 spatial dimensions). The general lesson is that we should be suspicious of second order abstractions - the mere fact that they have logicallly coherent properties does not establish their having real-world instantiations. Something more than logical coherence is needed to justify believing it.Smith does address the sort of argument that you are hinting at in his section VI:
the collection of events cannot add up to an infinite collection in a finite amount of time, but they do so add up in an infinite amount of time. And since it is coherent to suppose that in relation to any present an infinite amount of time has elapsed, it is also coherent to suppose that in relation to any present an infinite collection of past events has already been formed by successive addition.
— Smith, Infinity and the Past — SophistiCat
Your suggesting that: since concrete objects entail abstract objects, that all abstract objects entail concrete objects. That does not follow; it commits the fallacy of affirming the consequent.What I'm aware of is this: every abstract idea is basically mined from the concrete.Your numerical example is perfect for demonstrating that: an idea pulled out of sets/collections of concrete objects. If so then zero must be an abstraction of sets that contain no members. Infinity, being more of a concept than an actual number, is to me, simply an extension of finite concrete sets, understandable in terms of the never-ending process of adding elements, say adding 1 to the preceding element, to a preexisting set. — TheMadFool