Comments

  • Evidence of Consciousness Surviving the Body
    If something is believed to be impossible, what sort of evidence would be needed to undercut that belief?Certainly not testimonial evidence.
  • Questions about immaterial minds
    what the questions in the OP seek to do, is to ask what kind of 'thing' or object an 'immaterial mind' can be, presumably to argue that, as it can't be meaningfully defined, then it must be 'taken off the table'.

    In my view, those questions cannot be answered, but that doesn't mean that mind is not real, nor that it's a product of matter or something that can be explained in materialist terms. However, if the question is posed in those terms, then that is the conclusion it seems to point inevitably towards.
    Wayfarer
    I'm not convinced mind is a thing, an existent. There are mental activities, and the phenomenon of consciousness. What we lack is a pardigm for analyzing the phenomena.
  • Questions about immaterial minds
    If you've got three ducks, it's nice to get them in a row.

    And then you've still got three ducks but now you've got a row as well. Assume the ducks are material.
    unenlightened
    By my reckoning, an actual row of 3 actual ducks is a material state of affairs (a thing). It is more than its parts (duck, duck, duck) because it includes the spatial relations among the ducks.

    We can abstractly consider rows; many states of affairs have the properties of "row". We can even abstractly consider rows of ducks - hypothetically, any actual collection of 3 ducks could be arranged in a row.

    Abstractions are mental objects formed by considering states of affairs with some common properties, and mentally subtracting the properties thatv distinguish them.
  • Questions about immaterial minds
    The assumption of an immaterial mind is an escape hatch from difficult questions. What are qualia? They're the stuff of minds. No further analysis is possible or necessary. The position is unfalsifiable. What can't be denied is that an immaterial mind must still somehow interact with the physical body. Even if the immaterial can do magical things , the interface with the physical is still problematic - that was the thrust of my questions.
  • Questions about immaterial minds
    The mind is not independent of the body.David Mo
    I don't understand how anyone can deny that, other than through blind faith.

    In my opinion it is a problem related to emergence. Different levels of matter cannot be explained by the "lower" ones.
    Assuming you're referring to ontological emergence, not just epistemological, how can you justify believing this? Every conceivable case of ontological emergence is explainable as a function of previously unknown properties of the underlying substance.
  • Evidence of Consciousness Surviving the Body
    There is a great deal of testimonial evidence of alien encounters. All that have been investigated have been discovered false, none verified as true. More significantly, the probability of an advanced, intelligent civilization within a navigable distance, who were motivated to make the long journey, is extremely low. Conclusions:
    1.there have been zero alien encounters
    2. Testimonial evidence is not a reliable means of establishing that an anomolous type of event can occur.
  • Questions about immaterial minds
    [
    There are many other such conundrums suggested by your post, which I would sidestep or subvert by pointing out that the mind is never itself an object of perception (unlike the body and brain, which clearly are). The mind is not something which we can stand outside of, and therefore objectify. That's why eliminative materialists believe it must be eliminated.Wayfarer
    Philosohers conceptually "objectify the mind", and my questions are directed at those who believe the mind is an immaterial object.

    quote="Wayfarer;390265"]many other aspects of 'mind-body' medicine, all suggest that mind influences the body in ways which are hard to account for in physical terms[/quote]
    I'm aware of that, but the difficulty of answering those questions doesn't imply dualism is true. My questions demonstrate there are at least as many questions that dualists can't answer. Should we therefore take both those possibilities off the table?
  • Mind cannot be reduced to brain
    If the mind is an immaterial object apart from the brain, many questions are raised. I listed them here
  • Questions about immaterial minds
    If the mind is immaterial:
    — Relativist

    .. it's not.
    A Seagull
    Physicalism is often dismissed based on the inability to answer some hard questions. I wanted to show there are also challenging questions for immaterialism.

    I actually don't think "the mind" is a thing; rather, its an abstraction of all the processes that we categorize as mental.
  • The process of getting a job
    A guy, who's grades from chemistry are nearly perfect and who's enjoying studying this subject - can't afford higher education (such as college or even high school because his family lacks of money). That will leave him with a very small amount of jobs which he could be doing in the end. Instead of working in a lab (with the chance of discovering something) he'll be given a mop or a position for a cashier. My question is - is that something we should be taking care of? Or is it a problem so extended it's simply not worth dealing with?Craiya
    There are endemic problems in the cost of education. If we, through government action, simply foot the bill, costs will skyrocket further. Compare this to healthcare: because most prople had insurance, prices skyrocketed because insured consumers were insulated from actual costs. The same thing could happen with higher education.I favor doing something to make it easier to climb out of poverty, particularly regarding higher education and vocational schools, but we have to be careful to avoid exacerbating the endemic problems.
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    The immaterial aspect of the mind (the power to choose and attend, aka aware) has no specific "place;" however, experience tells us it generally attends to data processed by and encoded in the brain -- and we have a reasonable idea of how data gets there.Dfpolis
    It seems to me the only plausible explanation is that the physical processes cause immaterial mental states. — Relativist

    They inform the mental states, but to inform is not to be an efficient cause. Plans may inform a process, but they do not cause the process.
    Dfpolis
    Even if your mind is not spatially located, your brain is - and there's clearly a strong connection between your mind and your brain. Your mind doesn't obtain sensory input from your next door neighbor's brain. This suggests some sort of ontic connection between something located in space and something that is not. (There is an ontic connection between positively charged and negatively charged particles).

    Besides sensory input, the mind utilizes memories, and it seems the memories must be physically located in the brain, or at least some necessary neural correlates are in the brain. (By that, I mean that in the absence of those physical neural correlates, the mind cannot attend to a memory). This is the implication of memory loss due to trauma and disease. Do you agree?

    You rejected my suggestion that the brain causes mental states, so I assumed you must think the brain reads and interprets neural states. But you also denied that the mind is interpreting neural states (you said to Galuchat, " We do not first become aware (or ever become aware) of our neural state and then interpret what that state means."). What's left?
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    I agree that neural processes are physical. Whether or not mental states arise from them depends on whether or not we attend to them. The act of attending to them is an act of awareness (aka the agent intellect).Dfpolis
    OK, this suggests mental states contingently arise. Nevertheless, the relevant mental states do not arise without the physical input.
    at the fundamental level, physical-mental causation has to be taking place.
    — Relativist

    Why?
    Dfpolis
    Sensory perception ceases when there's a physical defect. This is strong evidence that the physical processes are in the causal chain even if there are immaterial dependencies as well (like attentiveness).

    Immaterial does not mean physically impotent. The laws of nature are not made of matter; nonetheless, they effect physical transformations.Dfpolis
    Laws of nature describe physical-physical causation. Mental-physical and physical-mental is unique.
    This implies there is a causal chain from the physical to the mental.
    — Relativist

    No, it shows that the agent intellect can transform physically encoded data to concepts (mental intentions).
    Dfpolis
    How does the physically encoded data get into an immaterial mind? How do you explain the dependency on physical processes? If you deny the dependency, why does input cease when the equipment is defective? It seems to me the only plausible explanation is that the physical processes cause immaterial mental states. The attentiveness issue doesn't refute this, it just adds a switch.

    I hope you can see that I'm treating mind as an immaterial object, and merely trying to infer how the mind interfaces with the world.
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    I do not assume that "electro-chemical signals produce the related mental states."Dfpolis
    I suggest that we can deduce this is the case.

    I do not assume that "electro-chemical signals produce the related mental states." Following Aristotle, I see this as the work of the agent intellect, which acts in the intentional, not the physical, theater of operations.Dfpolis
    But surely you must agree that sensory perception originates in physical processes, and ultimately mental states arise. This implies there is a causal chain from the physical to the mental. This suggests that somewhere in the chain, there is a final physical event followed by an initial (non-physical) mental event. There can be parallelism, but at the fundamental level, physical-mental causation has to be taking place. Mental causation entails the converse. I refered to this interface as a "transducer". It seems unavoidable if the mind is non-physical.

    I do not assume the mind is immaterial. I deduceDfpolis
    I have not deduced it, so I'm considering it a premise, for sake of discussion. Challenging it would entail a different discussion.
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    Yes, it does. How does this allow us to distinguish data on the sensor state from data on the sensed?Dfpolis
    As I said, the pain signal (in effect) reaches a transducer which produces the mental state of localized pain. Does this much sound plausible? If so, what is your specific issue?

    If the mind is immaterial, as you assume, the issue seems to he: how do physical, electro-chemical signals produce the related mental states - right? It's not clear what specific issue you're focusing on. I'm just saying there has to be some sort of physical-mental transducer - that's where the magic is (the physical-mental causation).
  • Who wants to go to heaven?
    How about: the sheer ecstacy of being in heaven reduces the temptation to sin to vanishingly small levels.

    I should become a theist.
  • Who wants to go to heaven?
    Free will can only disappear if it exists in the first place. But supposing it does, what makes you think free will necessarily disappears?
  • Exciting theories on the origin of the universe
    As a non-physicist and non-theist, I think these speculative hypotheses are interesting in two respects:1) they expand the possibilities we can consider - e.g. showing that a finite past is feasible; 2) they refute arguments from ignorance regarding the "need" for a creator.

    That said, I feel strongly that we (non-physicists) ought not to embrace any specific hypothesis. None are established physics, and probably none are actually true. They are possible, but there's unknowns in physics that need to be filled before any cosmological hypothesis can become accepted physics. It's fun to extrapolate from them, but we shouldn't get so overconfident that we think we've got it all figured out.

    One guy I read suggested simply that the laws of physics are most fundamental.Gregory
    Either that guy is a physicist doing a bad job of metaphysics, or that statement is incomplete. Laws of physics are typically described as equations, but it doesn't make sense to consider equations (alone) as the fundamental basis of the universe. The equations are not abstractions that exercise control over reality; rather they describe how material things behave.
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    how do I distinguish a signal indicating the existence of a condition causing pain from a signal that says only that a pain receptor is firing? Since they are one and the same signal, I do not see how I can.Dfpolis
    When a pain receptor is fired, the mind experiences it as the quale "pain". That is the nature of the mental experience. In effect, the signal passes through a transducer that converts the physical signal into a mental experience.
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    I am not arguing for solipsism. I take as a given that we are conscious of objects other than ourselves. Rather than questioning this datum, I am trying to understand the dynam­ics making it possibleDfpolis
    I agree, but how does this allow us to distinguish body states from external states?Dfpolis
    I suggest that it's a consequence of the neural connections being different. Consider how we distinguish the location of a pain in the left knee - it's a consequence of the specific connections from peripheral nerves to specific areas of the central nervous system, wherein we become consciously aware of the pain's location. Even after the pain is gone, the memory of the pain is unique from other conscious experiences. Visual and auditory information are also unique, and processed through unique neural paths, and this maps to conscious experiences that are also unique.

    You referenced Plantinga, so perhaps you're familiar with "properly basic beliefs". Our "beliefs" about the external world are basic, baked into the mechanism (or support structure) that produces (or supports) consciousness. (I'll add that they are properly basic, because they are a consequence of evolutionary development: a functionally accurate grasp of the external world is advantageous. This is the core of my refutation of his EAAN).
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    Communication (including: data, encoding, code, message, transmission, conveyance, reception, decoding, information) is a good analogy for the sensation process if a physical (as opposed to only semantic) type is acknowledged.Galuchat
    It's a useful analogy in some contexts, but it may not be the best analogy for analyzing the ontology of mind. For example, we aren't going to find a physical structure that corresponds to a packet of data (from perception) or of decomposable information (like the logcal constructs that define a concept). That is not sufficient grounds to dismiss physicalism; it may just mean we need a different paradigm.
  • Coronavirus
    Look on the bright side: had China not had their one-child policy, there would be more Chinese people today and consequently, more individuals with the virus.
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    Physical" means now the reality it calls to mind now. Its meaning may change over time (and has), but the present paradigms are based on our conceptual space as it now exists. Changing paradigms involves redefining our conceptual space, and a consequent redefinition of terms such as "physical" and "natural."Dfpolis
    I don't think it requires redefining "physical" and "natural", it means reconsidering the nature of our thoughts. A visual image is something distinct from the object seen, it's a functionally accurate representation of the object. In general, our conceptual basis for a thought is based on the way things seem to be, but the seemings may be illusory. It seems as if a concept is a mental object, but when employed in a thought, it may more accurate to describe it as a particular reaction, or memory of a reaction: process and feeling, rather than object.
  • Do Neural Codes Signify Conscious Content?
    Like the problem of distinguishing self-data from object-data, this seems to intimate that we have a ca­pacity to grasp intelligibility that is not fully modeled in our present understanding.Dfpolis
    I agree with this, and suggest this may just mean we have a problematic paradigm. E.g. reference to "information" seems problematic, because information connotes meaning, and meaning entails (conscious) understanding - which seems circular, and it doesn' seem possible to ground these concepts in something physical. That doesn't prove mind is grounded in the nonphysical, it may just be an inapplicable paradigm.

    Consciousness is that which mediates between stimulus and response. As such, we should consider the evolution of consciousness from the simplest (direct stimulus-response), to increasing complexity, and develop a paradigm that can be applied to the development of mediation processes. As far as I know, this has not been done.
  • When are we at the brink of needing new technology?
    The threat I am referring to, is the inability for human beings to find activities that suitably pass the time.Jhn4
    Mankind has invented this forum. Problem solved.
  • When are we at the brink of needing new technology?
    when do we require new technology? When do we decide that the human race has reached stagnation and cannot collectively produce new 'content' to keep itself fresh?...
    ...I would argue that we are reaching that stage in history now, and that it poses a threat to our existence, and it is an emergency that needs tackling.
    Jhn4
    What threat(s) to our existence are you referring to?
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    The hypothesis needs further testing. I suggest you help elect Bernie Sanders to test whether the stress this induces in conservatives results in their bearing more females.

    If true, it's ironic that Trump - the womanizer - is the cause of more women.
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    That’s right. The issue is this should be self-evident and the problem is people just don’t understand the words.Zelebg
    I think it's a product of the pedagogy of mathematics, physics, logic and some related fields. We're taught that triangles and laws of physics (expressed as equations) exist. This leads us to speak of them that way, and this leads to treating them as ontic, and not just as a manner of speaking.

    From the point of view of a mathematician or physicist doing his normal work, it doesn't matter. It's convenient to treat them as existing, as a methodological principle. But when mathematician's and physicists conflate the methodological semantics with ontological claims, they've gone too far.
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    Again, your definition of what exists is too narrow.Wayfarer
    I disagree with describing it "narrow". It is parsimonious, but leaves nothing unaccounted for. It's reasonable to methodologically treat abstractions as independent existents, but that utility does not depend on an ontological commitment.

    Emphasis on the qualifier "independent", because this parsimonious ontology doesn't deny the existence of triangles and right angles, it just denies that they exist independently of the things that have those properties. The angles between the walls of my bedroom are 90 degrees - and this angle does actually exist, just not independently of the walls. Many other things have this exact same property, and that's why "having a 90 degree angle" is a universal.

    My issue is that there's no good reason to assume "90 degree angle" exists independent of the things that have it. Sure, we can think abstractly about this property without considering the things that have it, and that's a product of our powers of abstraction.

    If you don't accept my premise about parsimony (that we should minimize the ontological furniture), then you are free to assume "90 degree angle" actually is an independently existing Platonic entity. But you would need to account for the relation between this entity and the items that exhibit it.You also need to distinguish between abstractions that actually exist (like "90 degree angle") and fictions that exist only within minds (single minds, or even many minds) - fictions like Spider-Man.
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    you could explain it through a simple mathematical formula (time= distance/speed). And as such, we are back to abstracts. Mathematical abstracts.

    Are they real? (Where do they come from, a priori.) How is this phenomenon even possible?
    3017amen

    Distance exists in the real world as an ontic relation between two objects (two states of affairs) separated in space. Time exists as an ontic relation between two events (two states of affairs) separated in time. Considered apart from their respective objects, distance and time are abstractions - mental objects, that can be abstractly mapped to numbers, which we can mentally manipulate mathematically - computing such things as ratios (distance/time = speed).
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    Does it really make more sense to suggest the relations exist independently, and the states of affairs that exhibit them have some sort of ontic relation to those platonic objects?
    — Relativist

    I believe so. Don't overlook the fact that the current model of the so-called fundamental constituents of matter, the so-called 'particle zoo', is a mathematical model.
    Wayfarer
    Mathematical models don't entail the independent existence of platonic entities.

    Consider the simple case of the relations between electrons and protons. How do we account for these with platonic entities? We'd have an electron with some sort of ontic relation to the abstract object "-1 electric charge", and the proton has an ontic relation to the abstract object "+1 electric charge", and then these abstractions have an "attraction relation" between them. It is simpler to simply assume the attraction relation exists between electrons and protons by virtue of their respective intrinsic properties (their electric charge). This account minimizes the number of ontic entities, and does not constrain our ability to reason and do math.

    what is the status of the definition? I would have thought that triangles would be discovered in all possible worlds, in other words, their reality is not dependent on our definition of it, but our definition of it must conform to the concept
    The definition of triangle is not impacted, just the ontology behind it. There are states of affairs that have triangularity among the constituents. We can mentally consider the property "triangular" while ignoring the other details of the object, but that doesn't require the abstract object "triangle" to be ontic. It's a semantic convenience, and has the utility of allowing us to do the math,but we can do the math witthout making an ontological commitment to them.

    , you're assuming a reality independent of any observing mind, but that assumption might be philosophically problematical, i.e. it might not be as self-evident as you're assuming it to be.Wayfarer
    Yes, I'm assuming a reality independent of the observing mind; i..e. I deny solipsism. But this belief is not a deduction, it's just an articulation of a component of our intrinsic (not deduced) view of the world. While it's possibly false, that mere possibility is not adequate grounds to undercut the belief in an external world - a belief that is directly derived from considering our hard-wired relation to that world.

    This is about ontology- what actually exists, and we should not be promiscuous with our assumptions about what exists. Triangularity still exists, and we can still reason with triangles (as well-defined mental objects) without adding them to the furniture of the world.
  • The Road to 2020 - American Elections
    OK, so you think it extremely important that people start taking Medicare for All seriously. I presume you believe that this provides the optimal path toward its eventual adoption. That's debatable. There's a very real chance that a public option for Obamacare will pass if a Democrat is elected, and that also paves the way toward an eventual Medicare for All. The hope would be that the public option proves to be the best option, and the others fade away. So it's debatable as which direction will have the more positive long term effect, and in either case - the public option (along with additional structural changes that are needed) will do good.

    What's not debatable is the consequence of Trump continuing: not only will you not get "Medicare for All" in the discussion, you risk taking a step backward - eliminating Obamacare. Consider that the Supreme Court has agreed to review the law for Constitutionality in the next term, which will be after the election. If Trump is elected, the Solicitor General will be arguing to eliminate it. If a Democrat is elected, there will be a Solicitor General defending Obamacare. There's also a good chance they can restore it to Constitutionality (it could be as simple as reinstating the fee/"tax" for failing to have coverage, which Republicans zeroed out).
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    I see. If I understood you correctly then there are such things as second-order abstract objects e.g. tesseract. However zero and infinity are first-order abstractions in my opinion; so they should have concrete instantiations.TheMadFool
    Zero is second order: it is conceived as a negative fact, like removing the apples from a basket, one by one, ultimately leaving 0 apples. Negative facts are indirect - they don't tell us what IS, they tell us a subset of what isn't. One refers to 0 apples in this example only because of the psychological context - we're considering apples. Although the basket has no apples, it may contain oranges and orangutans. It is the indirect nature of negative facts that makes them second order.

    I agree it can't be completed and my intuition on the matter may be off the mark but consider this: I sometimes see only part of a person, say when that person is behind a tree or low wall but that doesn't mean the person doesn't exist does it?TheMadFool
    Consider how the notion of infinity is manifested in your counting example. Counting is a process. There is no infinity at any identifiable step of the process. Rather, infinity manifests as the process itself, one that never ends - and process is not an existent. It's still a reasonable way to conceive of a potential infinity, but this conception doesn't work for an actual infinity - including a past infinity. A conception for an actual infinity cannot be some ongoing process. It would entail a COMPLETED process.
  • The Road to 2020 - American Elections
    You do realize that Medicare for All will not pass even if Sanders is elected, right? Are you just interested in getting the idea taken seriously, with the hope this will catch on over time?
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    If you mean this article, then it doesn't say that, and it would be pretty incredible if it did, because the best established cosmological model to date implies an infinitely extended universe without the assumption of an infinite past. Note that the article spends considerable time talking about inflation, which is less well established than standard Big Bang cosmology, but inflation doesn't imply what you claim either.SophistiCat

    The article states: "In fact, unless inflation went on for a truly infinite amount of time, or the Universe was born infinitely large, the Universe ought to be finite in extent." I admit I was only addressing the first possibility, but the second possibility remains just a brute fact assumption.

    Physics analysis can't apply an arbitrary limit, so they must start with an absence of boundaries. That does not establish the existence of an actual infinity, it just indicates that the physics entails no boundary.

    As for your first order/second order abstractions, that's something completely different. I won't go further than just to say that I am not buying your epistemological construction.SophistiCat
    At least you see it's different. I consider rational belief to require rational justification, and logical consistency seems inadequate as a rational justification. 90-dimensional cube analogues are logically consistent, but there's no rational basis for believing they exist in objective reality.
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    I was talking about spatial extension. Simply put, if space is infinite, which seems plausible from what we know, and if the rest of it looks much like what we can see around us, which is very plausible, then there's your actual infinity (if by that you mean an infinite number of material objects).SophistiCat
    The first article showed that, according to accepted physics, spatial extension can only be infinite if there is an infinite past - that's why I focused on past time.

    Smith does address the sort of argument that you are hinting at in his section VI:

    the collection of events cannot add up to an infinite collection in a finite amount of time, but they do so add up in an infinite amount of time. And since it is coherent to suppose that in relation to any present an infinite amount of time has elapsed, it is also coherent to suppose that in relation to any present an infinite collection of past events has already been formed by successive addition.
    — Smith, Infinity and the Past
    SophistiCat
    This does not apply to my claim. Sure, it's coherent - his statement entails no logical contradiction, but it circularly assumes the infinity exists, and it is that assumption that I challenge. The concept of infinity is a second order abstraction - an extrapolation of first order abstractions. (see the last paragraph of my last response to TheMadFool). A 90-dimensional analogue of a cube is an extrapolation of a cube. It could be described coherently, and consistent mathematical inferences could be made- nevertheless, this does not justify believing there exist objects of the world that correspond to it (there would actually have to exist 90 spatial dimensions). The general lesson is that we should be suspicious of second order abstractions - the mere fact that they have logicallly coherent properties does not establish their having real-world instantiations. Something more than logical coherence is needed to justify believing it.

    I hope you see that my argument is purely epistemological, and specifically concerns whether or not belief in an actual infinity is justifiable.
  • Infinity and Zero: do they exist?
    What I'm aware of is this: every abstract idea is basically mined from the concrete.Your numerical example is perfect for demonstrating that: an idea pulled out of sets/collections of concrete objects. If so then zero must be an abstraction of sets that contain no members. Infinity, being more of a concept than an actual number, is to me, simply an extension of finite concrete sets, understandable in terms of the never-ending process of adding elements, say adding 1 to the preceding element, to a preexisting set.TheMadFool
    Your suggesting that: since concrete objects entail abstract objects, that all abstract objects entail concrete objects. That does not follow; it commits the fallacy of affirming the consequent.

    First order abstractions are formed by considering multiple objects of the world that have some common features, and mentally discarding the features that distinguish them. Second order abstractions are mentally constructed by extrapolation of first order absteactions - they don't necessarily have instantiations in the real world. Consider extrapolating from squares to cubes, to tesseracts, and beyond to higher dimensional analogues of cubes. They can only exist in the world if the world actually has that number of spatial dimensions.