I was wondering if whether or not they understood what I meant but assumed I was just misunderstanding :lol: it all makes sense now.

Wow, thank you so much for the resource and for taking time out of your day to help me. I truly appreciate it!

Yes, that was what I was trying to get at with "empirical evidence." Also, I find what you say to be very interesting! I'd like to add that while some schizophrenics experience this feeling of their mind being 'other' (the author of the paper I'm reading at the moment labels it hyper-theory of mind), others are unable to have ToM at all.

Also, what is your take on what this suggests about the personal/subpersonal divide (If there are any possible connections to be made)?

So are you saying that it doesn't make sense or is unnecessary to use "theory of mind" and that I should instead say patients are unable to understand that others are able to have separate mental states/hold separate beliefs?

I'm sorry I don't really know what you mean, I'm probably confusing myself :sweat: I wouldn't claim that they have ToM, since the empirical evidence says otherwise, and would like to talk about what this lack of regular functioning ToM suggests?

Yes! Patients are either unable to possess a ToM, or have deficits to some degree (they either can't understand that others have separate beliefs, or assume that others have access to their intentions etc.). Also, I'm curious as to why you don't think the personl/subpersonal distinction makes sense.