Wrong. Apparently you didn't read (or understand) the links I've provided ...By after physics ,he meant that it isbeyond the physical one or comes after the physical. — Abhiram
Aristotle (d. 4th century BCE) never used the title "metaphysics" which was designated centuries later (1st century BCE).by the editor of his surviving works Andronikos. Again: the books after the books on nature (re: Aristotle's Physika is his book on nature (from physis² in Greek)).After the Physics ~Andronikos of Rhodes, not; "beyond physics" (woo-woo). :roll:
https://www.britannica.com/topic/metaphysics — 180 Proof
You're quite mistaken, Abhiram. 'Metaphysics' literally is tà metà tà physikà (transl. the books after the books on nature)^^metaphysics is literally, beyond physics — Abhiram
I agree; hermeneutics, however, is only a method and not itself a language.Hermeneutics should [be] connected to the key concepts... — Abhiram
Why isn't 'the study of "the nature of" the study of nature' a "unified definition" for metaphysics?... unified definition of metaphysics is not possible. — Abhiram
I appreciate the reply, Arne, but I do not read these three philosophers this way. 'How one exists creates one's essence' is the gist of my understanding of existentialism: essence becomes and is not 'what is' (e.g. will to power, freedom, or being-in-the-world). 'Existence precedes essence' means existence necessarily does not have an essence just as a lump of clay necessarily is not a bowl or statue. 'Existence' is necessary, 'essence" is contingent: 'to exist is to make (choose) one's essence'. None of them are primarily concerned with the "Human", but only with, IIRC, becoming (intentionally) For-Itself, (transvaluatively) Übermensch or (authetically) Dasein, respectively. Whatever else existentialism may mean, existence lacks essence, or every existent needs (though most don't strive for) an essence. IMO, to say "human existence" in this context, Arne, already says too much (or not enough).For Sartre, human existence is freedom. For Nietzsche, human existence is will to power. For Heidegger, human existence is being-in-the-world. — Arne
:100: :up:A poor craftsman always blames his tools.
But a philosopher worth reading is creative and brings new ideas into being, using old language and a few neologisms. — unenlightened
I've always thought existence – how one actively exists – creates (one's) essence – becomes who one is. They (usually) reject the notion of "our essence" which is why (most) "existentialists" also deny the (non-subjective) designation. In any case, "being-in-the-world", "freedom" and "will-to-power" do not seem to me, according to primary sources, either synonymous with each other or equivalent to "existence".Yet it seems to me that Heidegger, Sartre, and Nietzsche are saying that existence is our essence, i.e., being-in-the-world is our essence, freedom is our essence, will to power is our essence. — Arne
:100:If the series itself is not a first cause and there is no cause for the series; then there is no first cause. — Bob Ross
:up: :up:Things are first and foremost intelligible in terms of their uses, their significance for living. — Janus
This sounds like 'human-level AGI' connected to the internet.Omniscient in this sense I guess would be understanding the totality of human knowledge on how nature works, life etc - science, philosophy, maths mechanics technology etc. I probably wouldn't extend it to "mind reading" or knowing everything about everyone's memories, private experience etc
aaa... I guess I'm positing someone who's like an encyclopaedia of objevtive truths, rather than subjective ones (opinions and beliefs), not only of what we already know but what we are yet to discover. — Benj96
This sounds totalitarian.As for benevolence ... to improve everyone's welfare.
:up: :up: I've had cold sweats from intermitten suspicions – recognition(?) – that 'the singularity' has happened already (ca.1989) and It is/They are covertly – indecipherably – doing it's/their own thing via 'the dark web', etc. The Simulation Hypothesis (or The Matrix) might be a tell, no?Another way to look at it is that such a being might already be here, there might be loads of them. How would we know? You could say, well if they were here, wouldn’t they bring an end to suffering? Well maybe they know something we don’t ( they are omniscient after all). — Punshhh
:smirk:[A]ny attempt to teach humankind to behave better results in crucifixion or at least a cup of warm hemlock. — Vera Mont
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/889372 :fire:Fuck the G-ride –
I want the machines that're makin' 'em!
...
Just a quiet, peaceful dance
For the things we'll never have
Just a quiet, peaceful dance
For the things we don't have
– I think would render "virtue and The Good" moot for the person trapped inside. The thought-experiment seems more analogous to a fentanyl-induced, permenantly vegetative coma than "Plato's Cave".Nozick's "Experience Machine"– — Count Timothy von Icarus
Explain what "unification of meaning" means and what you mean by "philosophy" that needs a "unified language" now in order to do what it has done for c2,500 years without an Esperanto-like "unified language".By unification I mean the unification of meaning of core concepts. — Abhiram
I don't know what you are talking about (re: the underlined above).We're looking at a metaphysical binary structure for existence, and thus everything conceivable is metaphysically constrained to a fundamental binary. Can we liberate ourselves from this constraint? [ ... ] the existence binary — ucarr
:chin:↪ucarr Please explain how 'existence does not exist' without self-contradiction. — 180 Proof
What does "unified language" mean? Also, describe the function(s), or purpose(s), of "philosophy" as you see it in order to more clearly contextualize your question.Is there a need to have a unified language in philosophy? — Abhiram
This is the crux of our disagreement. I understand 'randomness' to mean uncaused, acausal, without cause; you are denying this, claiming the opposite – that randomness itself (as if its an entity rather than a property) is a "first cause". This difference is more than a semantic dispute, sir. One of us is spouting jabberwocky ... :roll:If the earliest plan[ck] diameter is uncaused, or true randomness, then it fits the definition of 'first cause' — Philosophim
Yeah, Putin's Bitch f*cked around and is finding out! :lol:As of1Feb24[18Mar24[] the "great business man" will be, in effect, cash poor whining squatting & shitting his old man diapers on a pile of fire-sale depreciating assets & compounding civil lawsuit debts ... — 180 Proof
"Nothing / O" = beginning-less =/= first (anything). As for "the universe", QG describes it as (in my words) a random inflationary quantum fluctuation, perhaps one out of infintely many; you commit a compositional fallacy, Philo, arguing from the causal structure intrinsic, or dynamics internal, to "the universe" to the conclusion that "the universe" is the effect of a "first cause" that is extrinsic, or external, to it when, in fact, our best science (QG) describes "the universe's" earliest planck diameter as a random event – a-causal. The "BB" didn't happen c13.81 billion years ago – the limit of contemporary cosmological measurements – but is, in fact, still happening ("banging") in the manifest form of the ongoing development – expansion – of the Hubble volume (i.e. observable region of spacetime). Again, neither logic nor physics agrees with your conclusion. Your argument only works, Philo, with pre-modern, non-scientific premises but today is, at best, not sound."What causedthis universe to exist?" is always, "Nothing". It is "0". — Philosophim
