How can symbolic code be 'represented' by neural events? Don't you think there's a possibility you're confusing the two levels, neurophysiological and semantic? The basis of meaning is the perception of meanings which remain stable between different people and cultures. Do you think that's reducible to neurophysiology? — Wayfarer
Verbiage on the computer monitor I'm looking at reduces to characters on a page which my brain interprets into meanings.
Language spoken to me reduces to sounds which my brain interprets into meanings.
The coffee machine beeping is interpreted by my brain to mean that the coffee is ready.
My brain interprets waking up early as meaning that I might have a long, challenging day of exhaustion ahead of me.
All these cases and every possible case I can think of reduce to my brain making an interpretation. Sure, meanings are agreed upon, but this agreement between humans is not fundamentally semantic, it is cognitive. The semantic is real only insofar as it is embodied in a medium that implies meaning to my consciousness doing the interpreting. If meaning is shared, if semantic content is mutual, this is because it is etched into the material environment such that multiple individuals have a collectively functional access, not because it exists in some higher realm of ideal form set apart from what everything is made of. The point about morphic fields might be pertinent: perhaps a domain of object-forms exists that transcends sense-perception and standard physics, but this is no less material. I'm getting the impression that you don't want to discuss morphic fields, but it would be interesting to know something about related theories.
The semantic only has reality insofar as it is embodied in neurophysiological matter or its correlates in the material world. I can't imagine what meaning even is apart from the substances it is instantiated in. Claiming that a substance is "immaterial" seems contradictory to me. "Meaning" is merely an aspect of what substance does in conjunction with my consciousness' interpreting.
There is no reality to where the electron, as a material entity, a particle, is
The real world is completely different from how it appears to our senses, and the intellect demonstrates to us that the intelligible forms are far more reliable in giving us the real world, then are the senses. — Metaphysician Undercover
If there is no reality about what the electron is and quantum physics is purely a functional method utilized by technological practice, how can you say that the intelligible form of the phenomenon is more real than the sensible? Intellectual concepts might be more efficacious than sensory data alone, but not more real and certainly not independent of the senses, unless you mean something along the lines of the morphic fields that were mentioned by
@Janus, with "intellect" partially defined as that aspect of consciousness which has exclusive access to them.
Therefore the dream of "a single reality" where everything behaves according to a single, consistent and coherent, set of causal principles, because it is composed of a single substance, is just that, a dream. — Metaphysician Undercover
When the past and future interact they are causally unified such that certain events could happen and alternate events couldn't. I don't claim that causality is fundamentally principled, that is only our functional interpretation of it. And as for "single reality", monism isn't exactly a fringe perspective. Do you subscribe to a metaphysical foundation that differs from monism?