Comments

  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    The fact that that raw data is input to one person's senses, is processed by that same person's brain which is trained by that same person's past experiences, and is made available to that same person's conscious apprehension, makes it both private and idiosyncratic.Kenosha Kid

    The problem is breaking off that last stage, AND is made available to that same person's consciousness? What is made available to the person's consciousness. Is it a perceptual object with properties? It's like a process completes and somehow outputs a distinct entity with qualia like properties which then somehow embeds into consciousness... But the process itself is not generative of those kind of properties at all. Is "what's happening in my head" a function output ("made available") after all my perceptual processes within a given time window have concluded, or is that availability making a part of the perceptual bodily process.

    If the process goes:

    Object->Perception -> Perceptual object -> conscious apprehension, with that last arrow being "making available"

    Then we're in a situation where we have perceptual objects with private properties "presented to" the conscious apprehension. It's the same way of breaking up the stages as qualia:

    Object -> Perception -> Qualia -> conscious apprehension

    The only difference is qualia emphasises the properties of that intermediary perceptual object - between perception and conscious apprehension - in the first there is a perceptual object which has properties, in the second the properties have been split up before immersion into the chain.

    If instead it goes:

    object -> conscious apprehension, with the arrow being perception itself.

    Then we're not committed to perceptual objects with private properties, because there are no intermediary perceptual objects to apply properties to to begin with!

    I'm struggling for words - so we've separated out consciousness from perception - perception provides something to consciousness, that which is "made available" to it. Reiterating, that's the same kind of model that the paper is criticising, that there's this "mental entity" which has properties like privacy which is presented to consciousness (also the Cartesian Theater metaphor from Dennett's work makes the same point). Contrast this to having consciousness as part of perceptual processes, in that parsing perception doesn't present anything to a distinct faculty called consciousness at all. And in denying the existence of that which is allegedly presented, you deny that it is properties.

    But that's different from saying "people don't taste stuff", because x gets a sweet taste from y is an extrinsic relational property - the sweetness characterises the perceptual relation between person x and object y, rather than an a perceptual object which is presented to x's consciousness being characterised by a sweetness property. The latter is a unary property of the private state (a quale! a "what is it like" entity-property), the former is a unary property of the relation (an extrinsic relational property, a "what is it like to me" relation).
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    How could you know whether anyone else has been “so effected”?Luke

    Let me rephrase, there is a big difference between saying that a person has a sense datum/experiential entity with a given structure that only they have any access to of any sort (privacy) and saying that the same person has had a unique (idiosyncratic) experience. The former commits one to the existence of entities of a given sort with the property of privacy that stand in some relationship to experience, the latter only commits one to have been the perceiving agent in a perceptual event or perceptual relationship.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    I don't see how any processes acting on my raw sensory input to produce my conscious perceptions can be anything other than private.Kenosha Kid

    I'm trying to highlight that the article is criticising privacy in the same way it's criticising other alleged aspects of qualia. There's a big difference between calling an experience private and saying that only one person has been so effected!

    In their place are relatively or practically ineffable public properties we can refer to indirectly via reference to our private property-detectors-- private only in the sense of idiosyncratic. And insofar as we wish to cling to our subjective authority about the occurrence within us of states of certain types or with certain properties, we can have some authority--not infallibility or incorrigibility, but something better than sheer guessing--but only if we restrict ourselves to relational, extrinsic properties like the power of certain internal states of ours to provoke acts of apparent re- identification. So contrary to what seems obvious at first blush, there simply are no qualia at all. — Dennett

    If you're talking about "the red in my subjective experience of the car", you are perhaps not talking about an "extrinsic relational property", you are talking about a unary property. Predicated of an experience-bearing "subjective state" of which that unary property partially constitutes. It follows some of the same structure of the quale which the article criticises. We're back in the situation I referred to before about experiencing experiential objects vs experience instances as a relations themselves.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    What I meant about not throwing the baby out with the bathwater is that there still remain objects of subjective experience, such that I can see a car without consciously determining it to be a car (even if 1 ms ago I didn't see a car), and that this object is private (internal processing from my raw sensory input to instantaneous apprehension by me) and immediate (I see car as car object is presented to me, which may be some while after I see light from car), but not intrinsic or ineffable, and that these objects and the processes that yield them (e.g. neuron that recognises car) underlie our pre-theoretical conceptions of what theorists call qualia.Kenosha Kid

    more scienticially-grounded ideas of objects of subjective experience, i.e. how we actually appraise such objects as car, taste of coffee, sound of gunshot, etc.Kenosha Kid

    Here's the thing I don't get; if you've removed the ineffability, the difference between first person and third person epistemic standards, you've removed the idea perceptions obtain properties in the manner we introspectively ascribe them, you've removed the privacy, and you've removed the certainty, and you've hollowed out the distinction between intraworldly events and psychic life, what actually remains of ascribing "subjectivity" to a perception, other than "putting it into an agent as an object", when it's actually characterised up until that point as an agent-environment relationship? Doesn't "subjectivising" it already treat it as private entity that can only be introspectively accessed?
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    How is this consistent with Dennett’s claimed acknowledgement that conscious experience has properties?Luke

    Tried to get at this tension here and here here. Maybe a decent analogy is:

    If I write this program for my computer:

    addit=function(x,y){
    thesum=x+y
    return(thesum)
    }
    

    then I call it on arguments (1,2):

    addit(1,2)
    

    so it returns 3.

    One way of explaining what the program did is: "the program added the natural number 1 to the natural number 2 and computed the result, it then outputted the result 3", but did my computer really add the natural number 1 to the natural number 2? Or was the process actually more like: "fdrake opened up a software environment and wrote in high level code and called it, the computer took that calling instruction and through a laborious process translated the input lines of code into machine code, which caused a bunch of transistors allocated for the task to enter into a specific complex of high and low voltage states, which gets passed up back a complex of circuits into the software environment and the display". If it's the latter, adopting the first description will be an inaccurate approximation that gets even the type of entities wrong; the physical process in the computer is not adding mathematical abstractions together, there aren't even any natural numbers in my computer; but it's a decent functional explanation for a demonstrative purpose. IE, the first is essentially a lie to children, which may suffice for some purposes but certainly not understanding what was actually going on in (in!) my computer.

    If we describe our experience of a red patch as a combination of a shape quale and a colour quale combined in experience, perhaps it is a lie to children of the same sort. It maybe gets the type of entities wrong (do we have shape qualia or shape-colour qualia? Do we have the red-quale or the this-patch-red-quale?), it maybe refers to entities which are non-representative placeholders for the system in question (am I justified in believing that I am experiencing an experiential entity derived from the red patch or am I experiencing a red patch?), it maybe gets how they are combined wrong (am I justified in believing that there is an operation of typing/categorisation within my experience that apportions colour qualia independently of shape ones in the manner I do introspectively?), it maybe gets the mechanism of their identification wrong (I assigned "the natural number 1" to the symbol "1" in that code, but it isn't what the computer was doing as a matter of internal procedure - an act of intellectual blurring similar to the synthesis of an experience into distinctly typed entities which are claimed to be experienced together). I believe what is being gestured towards in part is that our "pre-theoretical" notions (and resultant qualia ones that leverage them) are not fit for task for understanding the structure+operation of the internal states of people (in!) - another part is leaning on that internal/external distinction itself in some ways (criticising the "private" part of qualia).
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    All of this is immediately presented to me, by which I mean that, though I may determine these things over time as I focus on them, I do not have to consciously derive them by looking at them.Kenosha Kid

    I think you're pretty off the mark here exegetically @Kenosha Kid,

    (1) ineffable (2) intrinsic (3) private (4) directly or immediately apprehensible in consciousness Thus are qualia introduced onto the philosophical stage. They have seemed to be very significant properties to some theorists because they have seemed to provide an insurmountable and unavoidable stumbling block to functionalism, or more broadly, to materialism, or more broadly still, to any purely "third-person" objective viewpoint or approach to the world (Nagel, 1986). Theorists of the contrary persuasion have patiently and ingeniously knocked down all the arguments, and said most of the right things, but they have made a tactical error, I am claiming, of saying in one way or another: "We theorists can handle those qualia you talk about just fine; we will show that you are just slightly in error about the nature of qualia." What they ought to have said is: "What qualia?"

    If you are wondering about something which may be or fail to be "immediate", "intrinsic", "priviate" or "ineffable", I think Dennett would say you've already gone too far. What qualia?

    My claim, then, is not just that the various technical or theoretical concepts of qualia are vague or equivocal, but that the source concept, the "pretheoretical" notion of which the former are presumed to be refinements, is so thoroughly confused that even if we undertook to salvage some "lowest common denominator" from the theoreticians' proposals, any acceptable version would have to be so radically unlike the ill-formed notions that are commonly appealed to that it would be tactically obtuse--not to say Pickwickian--to cling to the term. Far better, tactically, to declare that there simply are no qualia at all. Endnote 2

    In the opening paragraph, Dennett wondered how another person could relish the taste of cauliflower when he himself hates it. If a person goes from such an observation to asserting the existence of a taste quale which varies over people, Dennett already asserts that that person has made a "fundamental mistake":

    This "conclusion" seems innocent, but right here we have already made the big mistake. The final step presumes that we can isolate the qualia from everything else that is going on--at least in principle or for the sake of argument. What counts as the way the juice tastes to x can be distinguished, one supposes, from what is a mere accompaniment, contributory cause, or byproduct of this "central" way. One dimly imagines taking such cases and stripping them down gradually to the essentials, leaving their common residuum, the way things look, sound, feel, taste, smell to various individuals at various times, independently of how those individuals are stimulated or non- perceptually affected, and independently of how they are subsequently disposed to behave or believe. The mistake is not in supposing that we can in practice ever or always perform this act of purification with certainty, but the more fundamental mistake of supposing that there is such a residual property to take seriously, however uncertain our actual attempts at isolation of instances might be.

    I think the paper's a battle on all fronts; against qualia existence claims, against their typically ascribed first order properties (the creamy cauliflower taste quale), against their second order properties like ineffability (the ineffability of the creamy cauliflower taste quale).
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    There's no real difference between the three, it's all a language trick.Olivier5

    The difference between a property of an object and an object is pretty big. "3 is prime" says the property "is prime" applies to 3, whereas "is prime" isn't even a number. What's the square root of the concept of prime? The answer is nonsense.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    A property of your entire life and the environment you've interacted with up to this point, maybe, but that's definitely not on table.Isaac

    @Kenosha Kid too, as this post is talking about problems with the qualia concept, previous post I made that this post is elaborating upon.

    The impulse towards treating the sweetness as higher order predicates could already be wrong on Dennett's terms though, I'm unsure whether it would qualify as treating sweetness as a property held by an entity. I believe there is a possible tension there, depending on whether treating the experience as a greater than unary predicate in any sense commits the same "residual property" error that Dennett is alleging. The possible tension comes from:

    He is on quite firm ground, epistemically, when he reports that the relation between his coffee-sipping activity and his judging activity has changed. Recall that this is the factor that Chase and Sanborn have in common: they used to like Maxwell House; now they don't. But unless he carries out on himself the sorts of tests others might carry out on him, his convictions about what has stayed constant (or nearly so) and what has shifted must be sheer guessing.

    If I'm devil's advocating it; if the error arises ultimately from treating experience as an entity which bears properties, how is it any better to treat it as an entity which bears relations (or other high order predicates)?

    A possible rejoinder may be the claim that the perceptual relation is not between an experiential entity and an object, the relation is of x experiencing y. Dennett need not treat a perceptual event as an experiential entity which bears properties or relations, it instead may be thought that the perceptual event is that higher order predicate. IE, the experience itself is a relation or higher order predicate ranging over a huge parameter space/domain. Rather than an entity which goes into such a relation as a term/function argument - like seeing a red quale - or outputs from such a relation as if evaluating experience as function - like "i see the result of my seeing".

    Contrast "I perceived (the content of my perception ( of x ) )" and "I perceived x". The first has me entering into a relationship with the experiential entity of the content of my perception of x, and the second is that I enter into a relationship with x. In the second, there's no experiential entity that I enter into a relationship with, I simply perceive some stimulus of perception. "I experienced a red quale" has me entering into relationship with an experiential entity, "I experienced a red car" has me, well, experiencing a red car. A quale parsing of it - seeing ( red ( car ) ), and a non-quale parsing of it - seeing ( red car ). I see the red on the car vs I see the red car.

    There's a whole lot of ambiguity in that parsing though, as that non-quale parsing has "red" inside of what's seen, in that red functions as part of a perceptual stimulus as well as being in the percept, maybe - then we've got the realism vs anti-realism of perceptual features debate again. I imagine that if we're talking about perceptual feature construction we're already quite far from the paper and qualia, though. So I want to pre-emptively nip that in the bud.

    The salient point in the devil's advocate is that the "fundamental error" seems to be claiming that or acting as if we experience experiential entities (which have or may be experiential properties), rather than experience itself being a mode of our interaction with entities.

    That looks to me one way of fleshing out it being okay to say "The coffee tasted sweet today" but not "My subjective experience of today's coffee was partially constituted by a quale of sweetness".
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    An honest attempt to at least start with " I see what you guys mean...but..."Isaac

    Aye. I read it as an illustration of the kind of thinking that prepares someone to start parsing their experiences in terms of qualia. Another way of phrasing what the doubt is targeted at: if experience events have properties, in what manner do experience event parts bear those properties?

    To perhaps illustrate it further: if we allow ourselves to do the usual thing we do, like go from: (1) "The coffee I had today tasted sweet to me" to (2) "The sweetness of the coffee I had today" to (3) "My subjective experience of sweetness from the coffee I had today", we actually describe the experience with different logical structures.

    (1) describing a relationship between myself and the coffee I had today (it tasting sweet to me). That's of the form me (relation) coffee, x tastes sweet to y.

    (2) predicating a property of the coffee ("sweetness") which I stand in relation to. That's of the form me (relation) (coffee property of sweetness). x tastes ( sweet ( y ) ).

    (3) predicating a property of myself which is in relation to the coffee. (my subjective experience) relation (coffee). (sweet-quale-having ( x )) drinking-experience-forming-relation ( y ). Like "the coffee lead to me having a quale of sweetness as a constitutive part of my subjective experience of the coffee".

    It's pretty clear that these don't mean the same thing; (1) is a relationship between object level entities in a domain (me, coffee), (2) is a relationship between an object level entity in a domain and a property defined over some unspecified domain (me, coffee property) and (3) a relationship between a property of me and an object of the domain (property of me, coffee).

    The lack of domain specificity in (2) and (3) I think is what Dennett's gesturing towards in some of this paragraph:

    One dimly imagines taking such cases and stripping them down gradually to the essentials, leaving their common residuum, the way things look, sound, feel, taste, smell to various individuals at various times, independently of how those individuals are stimulated or non- perceptually affected, and independently of how they are subsequently disposed to behave or believe.

    If we conceive of the those properties in 2 and 3 as predicating only of me and the coffee, they actually lose context specificity
    *
    ( recall "independently of how these individuals are stimulated or non-perceptually affected", the context of body and environment has no place in that unary relation, it's just ascribed of "me" or "my subjective state"!)
    , the act of predication of the sweet quale to me selects the sweetness from an uncharacterised space of properties - that is, applies the sweet quale to me without consideration of my mood, my tastebuds, the time of day, the chemical composition of the coffee, the temperature of the water it was brewed with, the coffee:water ratio... If those things were impactful on the coffee experience (and we know they can be), the sensation of sweetness could not be modelled accurately as a unary predicate/property. There's just no place in a logical property for more than one term. That is to say, it's a higher order predicate of those things - at least a relation.

    A qualia advocate might at that point say qualia means those higher order predicates, at which point the vocabulary of "red quales in my subjective experience" becomes suspect regardless.

    Intuition pump (1) concludes with:

    The mistake is not in supposing that we can in practice ever or always perform this act of purification with certainty, but the more fundamental mistake of supposing that there is such a residual property to take seriously, however uncertain our actual attempts at isolation of instances might be.

    I think it is possible to read this as saying that "experience doesn't have properties in any sense", but I believe it's quite uncharitable to do so. Notice that he's talking about a "residual" property, residual after what? The introspective judgements that isolate out properties of experience from the totality of their relevant context, the residual property being what my attention is focussed upon during those acts of introspective judgements regarding a (memory of) experience - which will lead to loss of relevant structure, and a subtracting of details towards some entity which bears the remainder.

    So, I think it's more likely to mean that intellectual act I did when talking about "the sweetness of the coffee I had today", fixing some aspect of a memory using introspection, will necessarily lead to error so long as I am treating the content of the sensation event as an entity while splitting it up (like a "picture"). The error being that there was some sort of experiential entity which bore that property, contrasted to the fact that the coffee tasted sweet to me.

    It's jumping around the paper a bit, but I think that Dennett also is less suspicious of experiences being described using relations than experiences being described using properties:

    He is on quite firm ground, epistemically, when he reports that the relation between his coffee-sipping activity and his judging activity has changed. Recall that this is the factor that Chase and Sanborn have in common: they used to like Maxwell House; now they don't. But unless he carries out on himself the sorts of tests others might carry out on him, his convictions about what has stayed constant (or nearly so) and what has shifted must be sheer guessing.

    The Maxwell House example I think goes into that. The "quite firm (epistemic) ground" someone has when describing their experience relationally; Chase and Sanborn have had their tasting relationships with coffee change over time, compared to the looser territory of cutting up aspects of experience using introspective convictions about one's feelings alone.

    Chase's intuitive judgments about his qualia constancy are no better off, epistemically, than his intuitive judgments about, say, lighting intensity constancy or room temperature constancy--or his own body temperature constancy. Moving to a condition inside his body does not change the intimacy of the epistemic relation in any special way

    A flattening of standards between that which concerns people's self reports of experiences and that which concerns all else. I also don't think that commits him to the thesis that "self reports can be entirely discounted", just that they are "no better off than his intuitive judgements about (external things)". I think it's better to read this apparent skeptical attitude towards inner life as a compensation relative to Cartesian intuitions about the self-evidence of the structure of sensations and what they imply, not simply that they are had in some way:

    But then qualia--supposing for the time being that we know what we are talking about--must lose one of their "essential" second-order properties: far from being directly or immediately apprehensible properties of our experience, they are properties whose changes or constancies are either entirely beyond our ken, or inferrable (at best) from "third-person" examinations of our behavioral and physiological reaction patterns (if Chase and Sanborn acquiesce in the neurophysiologists' sense of the term).

    Less a claim that psychic life is irrelevant, more a claim that there should be no special treatment for intuitive judgements regarding psychic life. Anticipating a counter argument; if someone tells you that they have pain in their head, I believe this is consistent with trusting them that they had one - if it turned out to be caused by a stiff neck, that they felt it in their head is still data about the pain manifestation, it just turned out that the felt location did not specify the location of the cause even if it was informative about it (stiff neck may lead to headache).
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  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    BTW, also stop trying to wring meaning from the stuff Dennett says.frank

    If you're going to respond to me without making an attempt to do any exegesis for the paper in question, I'm just going to ignore it from now on.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"


    quine, v. (1) To deny resolutely the existence or importance of something real or significant. "Some philosophers have quined classes, and some have even quined physical objects." Occasionally used intr., e.g., "You think I quine, sir. I assure you I do not!" (2) n. The total aggregate sensory surface of the world; hence quinitis, irritation of the quine.

    From Dennett's parody philosophical dictionary.

    It says so in Quining Qualia in the second paragraph:

    The verb "to quine" is even more esoteric. It comes from The Philosophical Lexicon (Dennett 1978c, 8th edn., 1987), a satirical dictionary of eponyms: "quine, v. To deny resolutely the existence or importance of something real or significant." At first blush it would be hard to imagine a more quixotic quest than trying to convince people that there are no such properties as qualia; hence the ironic title of this chapter. But I am not kidding.

    Read the bloomin' thing!
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    e.g. pictorial) characterisation of our thoughtsbongo fury
    @Luke

    Yes! "Perceptions as pictures viewed by the mind. Qualia as picture properties." is the view I think's being criticised. Intuition pump (1) about the cauliflower looks roughly to be:

    (1) Let's take an experience of the taste as if it's a picture of a cauliflower eating event.
    (2) How did we take the picture?
    (3) Look at consequences of taking the picture that way.

    It seems appropriate to characterise intuition pump (1) as calling into question the step in (2) - trying to get at the methods of splitting up experience that result in describing any aspect of our perceptual acts as qualia.

    Intuition pump #1: watching you eat cauliflower. I see you tucking eagerly into a helping of steaming cauliflower, the merest whiff of which makes me faintly nauseated, and I find myself wondering how you could possible relish that taste, and then it occurs to me that to you, cauliflower probably tastes (must taste?) different. A plausible hypothesis, it seems, especially since I know that the very same food often tastes different to me at different times. For instance, my first sip of breakfast orange juice tastes much sweeter than my second sip if I interpose a bit of pancakes and maple syrup, but after a swallow or two of coffee, the orange juice goes back to tasting (roughly? exactly?) the way it did the first sip.

    So there's two steps to intuition pump 1, the first is a description of something that happened. Denentt watches someone reslishing cauliflower and wonders how it is possible that they could relish it when Dennett does not. That opens a space of questions regarding the variability of taste. That space of questions is dove into after Dennett writes "A plausible hypothesis". Dennett's initial foray into that space of questions begins with another observation regarding the variability of tastes, "the same food tastes different to me at different times". That invites the positing of an entity "the taste of a food" which is taken to vary over times and people.

    Perhaps it is a subtle point, but it is an important one. The beginning of intuition pump (1) is an attempt to get us in the frame of mind that qualia proponents are in when they describe their experiences after introspecting upon them. That it seems unobjectionable to qualia proponents means that it's working exactly as intended. It means Dennett indeed has understood the experience describing habits of qualia proponents sufficiently well to vogue as one. But then there's a swerve:

    Borne_Michelin_Virages.JPG

    Surely we want to say (or think about) such things, and surely we are not wildly wrong when we do, so . . . surely it is quite OK to talk of the way the juice tastes to Dennett at time t, and ask whether it is just the same as or different from the way the juice tastes to Dennett at time t', or the way the juice tastes to Jones at time t.

    Dennett is inviting us to question the underlying experience describing habits that lead us to believe that carving up experience in that way is reflective of the structure of experience at all.

    This "conclusion" seems innocent, but right here we have already made the big mistake. The final step presumes that we can isolate the qualia from everything else that is going on--at least in principle or for the sake of argument.

    Note that "conclusion" is in scare quotes, that signals that the tacit inference Dennett is trying to draw our attention to is somewhere in the narrative progression between the first paragraph; in which Dennett describes his wonder that someone could relish cauliflower despite him hating it and links it to that things taste different over eating experiences; and the conceptualisation of the described content in the second paragraph; in terms of taste being a within-eating-event (time dependent) and between-people (person dependent) property. The conceptualisation arises from a natural and hitherto unexamined move in how the experiences are narrativised/described/packaged.

    When we take this habit of description, the taste of cauliflower is deemed a time and people varying property of cauliflower eating experiences despite that the description of the experience alone lends no support for the theoretical act of positing such a time varying and people varying property. I believe the most important point is that "argument" for this metaphysical suturing on the manifold of our experiences is not stated, the positing is simply enacted in that description style.

    **
    (Origin of the vocabulary choice of "suturing" and manifold:

    Manifold suturing is a process by which a manifold is split up into different pieces by splitting it up with closed curves on it, the "closed curves" are experiential examples introspected upon, the different pieces are experiential components derived from analysis. Manifold suturing applied to the sensory manifold:

    Kant characterizes synthesis as “the act of putting different representations (perceptions-me) together, and grasping what is manifold in them in one cognition” (A77/B103); it is a process that “gathers the elements for cognition, and unites them to form a certain content”
    )


    Dennett's next comments are targeted at the description style which has been enacted:

    What counts as the way the juice tastes to x can be distinguished, one supposes, from what is a mere accompaniment, contributory cause, or byproduct of this "central" way. One dimly imagines taking such cases and stripping them down gradually to the essentials, leaving their common residuum, the way things look, sound, feel, taste, smell to various individuals at various times, independently of how those individuals are stimulated or non- perceptually affected, and independently of how they are subsequently disposed to behave or believe. The mistake is not in supposing that we can in practice ever or always perform this act of purification with certainty, but the more fundamental mistake of supposing that there is such a residual property to take seriously, however uncertain our actual attempts at isolation of instances might be.

    I bolded "counts as" as Dennett is precisely drawing attention to how our perceptions are sutured into components which become labelled as ("count as") components (properties) of the analysed perceptions
    *
    (Bringing in the MMP references: despite that the time varying people dependent property which can be split into instantaneous chunks "dot like impacts" is never present in the experiences analysed! It arises from an intellectual act of synthesis over experiences, not perception within experiences)
    .

    The "supposing" is done by the descriptive style, and not the argument. I believe strongly that this is why it seems so obvious to people and why qualia proponents do not really understand Dennett - it's a question of him doubting that something is methodologically appropriate which they are so habituated to doing it's like breathing for them.

    The issue of whether it's possible to always describe things in a manner that doesn't make the qualia positing moves is a separate one; in a discourse about the appropriate ways to analyse experience and see structures in it, the positing of qualia like theoretical entities should be able to be examined in that arena. We need to have different standards of rigour for an investigation into the structures of experiences and, well, day to day stuff.

    Finally in pump (1), Dennett highlights that the fundamental mistake of conjuring a residual property is actually enacted by the description style. One becomes committed to the existence of such a residual property not by demonstrating its existence, but by enacting a mode of description which presumes without argument the existence of the residual property. Analogy: if I'm running away from a hallucinatory giant chicken, that I am running away from it does not mean it is really there, it means that I am behaving as if it were. The behaviour here is the descriptive practice that gives rise to the qualia hallucinatory chicken. The "supposition" that there is a giant chicken to run away from.

    @Isaac - I think whether the "first order properties" or "second order properties" are called into question depends on which intuition pump we're talking about. Intuition pump (1) looks to me to be about first order properties and how they are ascribed. First order being eg. "the taste of this cauliflower to me now" and second order being eg. "(the taste of this cauliflower to me now) is private and subjective"
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    Wasn't he one of the first to raise the logical contradiction of some theory trying to undermine the reality of human subjective experience, from which all knowledge and theories spring?Olivier5



    Qualia as experiential objects with intrinsic (non-relational) properties are MMP's target of criticism in the opening sections of Phenomenology of Perception:

    At the outset of the study of perception, we find in language the notion of sensation, which seems immediate and obvious: I have a sensation of redness, of blueness, of hot or cold. It will, however, be seen that nothing could in fact be more confused, and that because they accepted it readily, traditional analyses missed the phenomenon of perception. — MMP

    Compare the above to the declaration of confusion regarding qualia Dennett expresses in the opening paragraphs of Quining Qualia. Further, consider the following skepticism towards "pure experience" in light of the idea that people do not experience qualia...

    Pure sensation will be the experience of an undifferentiated, instantaneous, dotlike impact. It is unnecessary to show, since authors are agreed on it, that this notion corresponds to nothing in our experience, and that the most rudimentary factual perceptions that we are acquainted with, in creatures such as the ape or the hen, have a bearing on relationships and not on any absolute terms — "MMP

    MMP highlights the co-constitutive relationships of agent, environment and context in perception. Compare this to the cauliflower tasting intuition pump in the paper; Dennett alludes to the idea that "a" taste is a complex of relations between the tasting agent, the environmental context, and the cauliflower rather than a subjective raw feel.
    *
    (If you want more quotes of MMP's commitment environmental/context sensitivity of perception I can find them for you)


    What counts as the way the juice tastes to x can be distinguished, one supposes, from what is a mere accompaniment, contributory cause, or byproduct of this "central" way. One dimly imagines taking such cases and stripping them down gradually to the essentials, leaving their common residuum, the way things look, sound, feel, taste, smell to various individuals at various times, independently of how those individuals are stimulated or non- perceptually affected, and independently of how they are subsequently disposed to behave or believe. The mistake is not in supposing that we can in practice ever or always perform this act of purification with certainty, but the more fundamental mistake of supposing that there is such a residual property to take seriously, however uncertain our actual attempts at isolation of instances might be. — Dennett

    The perceptual ‘something’ is always in the middle of something else, it always forms part of a ‘field’. A really homogeneous area offering nothing to be cannot be given to any perception. The structure of actual perception alone can teach us what perception is. The pure impression is, therefore, not only undiscoverable, but also imperceptible and so inconceivable as an instant of perception.. — MMP

    Another correspondence between the two thinkers in this context is the attitude of skepticism towards "pure impressions" - raw feelings, subjective states of redness, "the taste of the cauliflower" and so on -, MMP denies that they are even conceivable as instances of perception.

    Later MMP makes comments to the effect that people believe that these are instances of perception because they are attending too much to the object and the properties imputed to the perception by reflection upon the object. Those alleged properties of perceptions are instead results of insufficiently attenuated common biases of thought.

    The alleged self-evidence of sensation is not based on any testimony of consciousness, but on widely held prejudice. We think we know perfectly well what ‘seeing’, ‘hearing’, ‘sensing’ are, because perception has long provided us with objects which are coloured or which emit sounds. When we try to analyse it, we transpose these objects into consciousness. We commit what psychologists call ‘the experience error’, which means that what we know to be in things themselves we immediately take as being in our consciousness of them. We make perception out of things perceived. And since perceived things themselves are obviously accessible only through perception, we end by understanding neither. — MMP

    The skepticism towards what seem like natural intellectual moves in analysing experience that Dennett has? MMP has it too. I doubt anyone could come through any serious study of the Phenomenology of Perception and still believe, somehow, that MMP was writing about "subjective experience" and "qualia".

    **
    (I'm not trying to make the claim that MMP and Dennett would be besties, I'm trying to highlight that they're actually critical of the same notions of experience for broadly similar reasons.)
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"


    I dunno read and analyse the paper and see what you think.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    It's not called the Hard Problem for nothing.frank

    Whether qualia are appropriate to describe internal states, and indeed what the phenomenal structure of those internal states is, is a distinct problem from the hard problem, no? We're not talking about how phenomenal states arise or emerge out of non-sentient matter, we're talking about the appropriate description of internal/phenomenal states of sentient beings and what role qualia should play in that, if any. If we end up saying qualia do not exist as they are theorised/intuited, that still is consistent with keeping the explanatory gap open as we've not committed ourselves to any thesis regarding the emergence of phenomenal states from non-sentient matter! Solving the hard problem is a bridge between phenomenal states and physical states, dissolving it is showing there's no need of a bridge, the explanatory gap is asserting that there's a river in need of a bridge to cross
    *
    (or a denial that such a bridge can be built)
    . What we're doing in discussing this essay so far is staying on the phenomenal side to see if qualia help make a map of it.

    If it turned out that keeping the explanatory gap open required relying on theories/intuitions which can be shown to be confused, inaccurate or false, only then would the hard problem dissolve.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"


    Back to qualia, then. Whether it's right to claim that qualia do not exist, at least as they are theorised/described intuited, is going to turn on how they are theorised/described/intuited. As I see it, the contribution Quining Qualia makes is to present us with scenarios that bring to light by challenging commonly held intuitions we have about qualia.

    How that fits into the above eliminativism argument depends on to what extent intuitions/theories/descriptions using qualia are accurate and elucidatory of the phenomenon in question. Additional context is that the term is at face value rather vague and conflicted; eg it might refer to a property of a subjective experience, the experienced properties of a perceptual state, a retrojected aggregate over experiences ("the taste of cauliflower" being a singular posited quale), a flavour commonality that nevertheless instantiates into tasting-cauliflower experiences despite how taste subjective states
    *
    (flavour "notes", intensity, mouthfeel, cabbaginess vs creaminess vs toastiness depending on preparation)
    depend on the stage of chewing, it might be a property of the subject that is present at all times over the eating of cauliflower, it might be a relation between the subject and the cauliflower that varies with time... All of those metaphysically distinct conceptions might be what someone is referring to by "the taste of cauliflower quale".

    "the subjective state" vs "the subjective properties of the state" vs "the relational properties of cauliflower eating insofar as they relate to taste" vs "the time varying subjective state within cauliflower eating events" vs "an aggregate property over time varying subjective states within cauliflower eating events" vs "an aggregate property over people over time varying subjective states within cauliflower eating events" vs "an aggregate property over people over time varying subjective states over cauliflower eating events" ...

    It's only obvious if you don't look.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    If eliminativism here is the same as behaviorism, then this is correct. I think this is why behaviorism is fairly rare: because it implodes. It has to be qualified (ha) to allow humans the ability to theorize.frank

    I don't think it's the same as behaviourism in general.

    Analytical or logical behaviorism is a theory within philosophy about the meaning or semantics of mental terms or concepts. It says that the very idea of a mental state or condition is the idea of a behavioral disposition or family of behavioral tendencies, evident in how a person behaves in one situation rather than another. When we attribute a belief, for example, to someone, we are not saying that he or she is in a particular internal state or condition. Instead, we are characterizing the person in terms of what he or she might do in particular situations or environmental interactions. — SEP

    If behaviourism is characterised by the claim that there are no internal states of any sort, then in order for a type of eliminativism to be consistent with the negation of behaviourism all it would require is that type of eliminativism was compatible with there are some internal states of some sort.

    Eliminative materialism (or eliminativism) is the radical claim that our ordinary, common-sense understanding of the mind is deeply wrong and that some or all of the mental states posited by common-sense do not actually exist and have no role to play in a mature science of the mind. — SEP

    Specifically; it's prima facie consistent to claim that behaviourism is false, but all the common sense/folk psychological entities that we posit in explaining/describing internal states do not actually exist (as they are described/intuited/theorised). In that case, there are internal states, but the ways we describe them are not true verbatim. The ones we use might still be useful fictions, representative summaries etc. Though that's going to depend on precisely how one is an eliminativist. It might also be that there really are internal states associated with the words we use to describe them (like "emotion"), but that the words we use to describe them in their normal use correspond to a collection of internal states with radically different characterisations - rendering the use of the terms in their normal way occlusive and inaccurate. In that kind of scenario, it may be that we really have gotten the internal states conceptualised right in our normal use of the terms for some internal state categories - but not for others. So perhaps one can be an eliminativist towards what's gestured toward by a usual word we use for some category, but not others - like being an eliminativist towards emotion, but not pain.

    TL;DR - eliminativism doesn't have to be the claim that "there are no internal states", it might be a claim that "there are no internal states of type X" or that "there are no internal states of type X as we commonly theorise/intuit/refer to them". That's the kind of intuition being pulled on when Dennett wrote about "the taste of cauliflower" in the first example; the taste? There's one? But it's a time and individual varying relation? It varies over the behaviour that promotes the experiences we aggregate later into "the taste of cauliflower"? Look at all this complication, surely there's some work to do in picking it apart...
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    I didn't understand much of that but I have no objection.Olivier5

    Read the links I provided, then. I did bother to reference the post, but I appreciate that it was very dense and relied upon familiarity with the terms. I could not think of a better refutation of your claim that

    you are not interested in experience either,Olivier5

    than showing you how interested I am in the structure of experience. Including showing my work. Can we move onto discussing the actual paper now please? And how it deals with the structure of experience?
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    And likewise, you are not interested in experience either, you just want to refute the non-eliminativists. It's just another battle of the God Wars for you and Dennett. That's boring metaphysics trying to eliminate some other boring metaphysics, and throwing the baby with the bath water for good measure...Olivier5

    Nah. I'm an eliminativist towards qualia because how they're used seems to me to commit their user to an account of perception which relies upon a perceptual intermediary which bears or instantiates the qualia. That people's intuitions go towards qualia looks to me to derive from treating their experiences in a present at hand manner. Intuitions that treat experience/perception as present at hand resembles Cartesian Theater rather a lot. Appearance-objects-with-properties (sense data) that we experience, qualia being a type of property, and a perceptual intermediary being the object that bears it.

    So I'm eliminativist towards qualia because I think that position reflects the phenomenology of experience; I don't think there are appearance-objects-with-properties, so I don't think there are appearance-objects-with-(subjective)-properties.

    I'm also hesitant to say "experience", because that starts looking like treating "an experience" - an instance of perceptual relation - as an object rather than as a distributed agent-environment relation; a corpuscle of correlated interactions between a body, its social context and history, and its environment.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    Who are you talking about? Chalmers?frank

    I had the self refutation objections in my head. The other thread's OP link has Strawson explicating a version of it.

    (1) Eliminativism towards (class of mental/phenomenal states with theorised properties relative to an account) is an instance of (class of mental/phenomenal states with those theorised properties relative to that account).
    (2) Eliminativism is false.

    A non-eliminativist using this argument doesn't have to talk about "that account" - their account - in the second bracket at all to try and refute eliminativism, but you do have to to examine the truth of the first premise. If it were the case that the class was empty, then (1) is false. "The second class is empty" would be true when the entities (like qualia) in whatever account do not exist in the manner they are theorised to, which is an eliminativist position regarding the class in question!

    Given that this is a widespread refutation attempt; indeed, a philosopher as prominent and otherwise generous as Strawson targets Dennett with a version of it; the suspicions regarding qualia proponents being unwilling to talk about the structure of qualia seem quite well grounded to me. You can also see it on the forum, people who use qualia language to theorise/intuit experience don't pin down the structure of experience they're using or intuiting, they want to refute the eliminativist rather than discuss the structure of experience.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    Computers that are equipped with visual, sound, or pressure interfaces call feel things. One could say they have experiences. We imagine that the experiences humans and other animals have go beyond function to include awareness of a quality of being.frank

    AFAIK that's part of his intentional stance idea. Say if you put an expression which always evaluates as true as the terminating-when-false condition which is checked in the iterations of a while loop, it might be harmless to say "the computer thinks it needs to go on forever". It's an explanatory strategy for what the computer is doing, even if the computer strictly speaking does not think.

    The question is going to be how similar "thinking" in "I was thinking about you yesterday" when said to a lover is to the (metaphorical) state we ascribe to the computer in "the computer thinks it needs to go on forever". Is one thinking like the other? Is one imputation of thought like the other? Why and how much? - that kind of thing.

    Well, since it wasn't specified, I don't care if it exists or not.frank

    If someone has a theory about how something works, its structure, its properties, it's on them to set out the theory. That people do not do this for qualia, or equivocate between the theoretical construct they're using and the fact that people feel things in some sense is shirking the burden of proof. The essay in the OP as precisely an attempt to study these intuitions in order to specify them and draw out consequences. To shift this burden of proof:

    I want to shift the burden of proof, so that anyone who wants to appeal to private, subjective properties has to prove first that in so doing they are not making a mistake. — Dennett

    If he ends up saying something absurd; maybe it's on him, maybe it's because what he's criticising is nebulous and unspecified in the accounts of its proponents and it's hard work.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    The qualia denier seems to have two options as a result: either deny there are any sense data, which seems very unlikely; or deny that sense data have properties, which is to deny a defining characteristic of sense data according to the SEP definition that you quoted.Luke

    Third option; which I take to be Dennett's (then we can get back to the thread).

    (1) People feel stuff. (Dennett agrees)

    Which idea of qualia am I trying to extirpate? Everything real has properties, and since I don't deny the reality of conscious experience, I grant that conscious experience has properties. I grant moreover that each person's states of consciousness have properties in virtue of which those states have the experiential content that they do. That is to say, whenever someone experiences something as being one way rather than another, this is true in virtue of some property of something happening in them at the time... — Dennett

    (2) There are theoretical accounts of how people feel stuff. (Dennett agrees)

    (3) The concept "qualia" plays a central role in some of those accounts. (Dennett agrees)

    (4) Using the concept "qualia" in one of those theoretical accounts in the commonplace ways in which it is used comes along with theoretical and/or intuitive commitments regarding the nature of experience; of how experience/feeling/consciousness/perception is theorised. (Dennett agrees, Quining Qualia is trying to illustrate and render implausible some of those commitments)

    (5) Those commitments are inaccurate, false, incoherent or implausible (this is what Dennett's thesis is).

    (6) Therefore the existence of qualia (as theorised or intuited) is false or implausible.

    but these properties are so unlike the properties traditionally imputed to consciousness that it would be grossly misleading to call any of them the long-sought qualia. Qualia are supposed to be special properties, in some hard-to-define way. My claim--which can only come into focus as we proceed--is that conscious experience has no properties that are special in any of the ways qualia have been supposed to be special. — Dennett

    If we say that someone is an eliminativist about qualia, that will mean they believe that qualia do not exist. Qualia the theoretical concept. That does not have to mean that "People feel stuff" is false, it simply means that the kind of thing qualia tries to refer to does not exist in the manner it is theorised or intuited. See edit for more detail.

    The qualia denier seems to have two options as a result: either deny there are any sense data, which seems very unlikely; or deny that sense data have properties, which is to deny a defining characteristic of sense data according to the SEP definition that you quoted.Luke

    In context, the same theoretical move as above could be applied to sense data; denying the existence of sense data is consistent with belief in the claim that "People feel and perceive", it may mean denying that the intended referent of sense data exists in the manner it is theorised to. In the broader context of Dennett's work, this is what I take his Cartesian theater metaphor to target. Taking target at the idea that an appearance is then interacted with by another perceptual/bodily process to present it to/as that person's experience. eg: (A, bad) attributing the quale "red" to a tomato appearance which was seen vs (B, good) saying that the tomato was seen as red.

    I'm sure whole books could be written about the distinction between A and B; the ontological status of perceptual features and how they arise in an agent's perceptual relationship with their environment (and objects within it).

    If we keep getting stuck by confusing denial of qualia for denial that people feel things at all, we're never going to understand the issue.

    Edit: the same theoretical move that I've just applied to qualia and sense data could be applied to the concept of feeling; if it were the case that the theoretical and intuitive commitments regarding "feeling" in our folk psychology/pre-analytical intuitions were inaccurate or misleading, then the same move that yielded "qualia don't exist" would yield "feelings don't exist" (as they are theorised or intuitied in our folk psychology). But you have to keep in mind that it that's quite a lot different from saying people don't "feel things" in any sense, "People feel things" could be false because we wouldn't feel things in the manner allegedly set out in folk psychology, which is providing the meaning of "feel" in "People feel things".
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    I think calling qualia sense data is an equivocation, or at least non-standard use:

    ]On the most common conception, sense data (singular: “sense datum”) have three defining characteristics:

    i) Sense data are the kind of thing we are directly aware of in perception,
    ii) Sense data are dependent on the mind, and
    iii) Sense data have the properties that perceptually appear to us.
    — SEP

    Feelings and experiences vary widely. For example, I run my fingers over sandpaper, smell a skunk, feel a sharp pain in my finger, seem to see bright purple, become extremely angry. In each of these cases, I am the subject of a mental state with a very distinctive subjective character. There is something it is like for me to undergo each state, some phenomenology that it has. Philosophers often use the term ‘qualia’ (singular ‘quale’) to refer to the introspectively accessible, phenomenal aspects of our mental lives. In this broad sense of the term, it is difficult to deny that there are qualia. Disagreement typically centers on which mental states have qualia, whether qualia are intrinsic qualities of their bearers, and how qualia relate to the physical world both inside and outside the head. The status of qualia is hotly debated in philosophy largely because it is central to a proper understanding of the nature of consciousness. Qualia are at the very heart of the mind-body problem. — SEP

    SEP on qualia and sense data.

    At best, a sense datum has properties which are introspectively accessible and are part of one's subjective state. In other words, a sense datum has qualia (or is associated with qualia), rather than is qualia. eg. If a sense datum of vision is the totality of visual appearances of which a person is aware
    *
    (pay no attention to treating an appearance as a mediating object (unary relation) and an agent-environment (binary) relation at the same time :P)
    , and that sense datum contains an apple
    **
    (or sub-appearance/image which is apple-like, an apple-appearance)
    , the visual qualia associated with the apple in the sense datum would be the totality of "introspectively accessible" feelings associated with (or identical to) appropriate apple
    **
    (or apple-appearance)
    properties. If the qualia is the red of the apple in my subjective state, it isn't identical to the light wavelengths of red or the apple's light reflectance/absorption profile simply because a component of my state is not part of the apple - the apple isn't the sense data or qualia featuring it. Keeping track of exactly what means what, and how you're carving up experience into those meaningful components is important.

    A distinct way of fleshing that out would be to say that qualia are properties of "properties that perceptually appear to us", the subjective aspect of perceptual properties, and the perceptual properties constitute the appearance. Another distinct way of fleshing that out would be to say that perceptual properties (properties of appearances) which are also "introspectively accessible" and "are part of the subjective state" immediately count as qualia. Though that will make qualia have a representational aspect or be a means of representation of object properties, as they are now constitutive of an agent-object relation rather than being a (the subjective/felt) component of the agent's perceptual state (the current sense datum).
    *
    (If representational is uncomfortable for you, try "informative", like "the taste of cabbage (to me) is informative about cabbage properties")
    Like my "red-quale" upon seeing the apple is in a correspondance/modelling relation with certain apple properties (not apple appearance properties) vs my sense-datum of the apple is in a representational relationship with the apple object and the red in the sense datum is simply a component of how that state feels to me. Those two accounts mark the distinction between (1) qualia being components of the agent-object perceptual relationship (qualia as relational components which may or may not be representational) and (2) qualia being subjective components associated with the agent-object relationship in a specific time/place/form (which might be a sense-datum, or other instance of experience).

    Are the qualia "in the agent", are they "in the object", are they "in the relationship" between agent and object? Are they themselves when considered together equal to the perceptual relationship between agent and object, are they outputs of an agent's perceptual relationship with an object in the perceiving agent, are qualia object properties as represented in an agent? Are qualia subject properties in a correspondence relationship with object properties when perception operates the correspondence relationship? Need there be any correspondence at all? (eg, dream/hallucination quales)... All distinct theses.

    You really have to pay attention to precisely what you're talking about if you want to talk about it. Come on qualia advocates, don't vaguely gesture towards qualia and equivocate-through-appeal-to-intuition just like the article accuses you of (while you dismiss it).
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    The concept 'works'.Olivier5

    Works in some way. As signalled by the scarequotes. How? What is that way? Is there more than one way? - That space of questions is (allegedly) left to the intuition by qualia proponents. If you'd like to deal with the article, I'll respond more, but since this is an exegetical thread I won't engage in something that will take us off essay.
  • Nothing to do with Dennett's "Quining Qualia"
    What's an an intuition pump?

    The purpose of an intuition pump is to challenge an intuition about a claim. It isn't a formal refutation, knock down argument, noticing a contradiction. It's an attempt to reconfigure someone's perspective on something by describing a (possibly imaginary) scenario and analysing how the scenario should be interpreted.

    Why is that appropriate here?

    My goal is subversive. I am out to overthrow an idea that, in one form or another, is "obvious" to most people--to scientists, philosophers, lay people. My quarry is frustratingly elusive; no sooner does it retreat in the face of one argument than "it" reappears, apparently innocent of all charges, in a new guise.

    What are qualia, exactly? This obstreperous query is dismissed by one author ("only half in jest") by invoking Louis Armstrong's legendary reply when asked what jazz was: "If you got to ask, you ain't never gonna get to know." (Block, 1978, p.281) This amusing tactic perfectly illustrates the presumption that is my target. If I succeed in my task, this move, which passes muster in most circles today, will look as quaint and insupportable as a jocular appeal to the ludicrousness of a living thing--a living thing, mind you!--doubting the existence of lan vital.

    My claim, then, is not just that the various technical or theoretical concepts of qualia are vague or equivocal, but that the source concept, the "pretheoretical" notion of which the former are presumed to be refinements, is so thoroughly confused that even if we undertook to salvage some "lowest common denominator" from the theoreticians' proposals, any acceptable version would have to be so radically unlike the ill-formed notions that are commonly appealed to that it would be tactically obtuse--not to say Pickwickian--to cling to the term. Far better, tactically, to declare that there simply are no qualia at all.

    The standard for demonstrating the metaphysical structure of qualia, and in some cases their existence, is an appeal to intuition rather than a philosophical argument or scientific study. If an appeal to intuition alone may be used to support any (perhaps nascent) qualia account, using equal evidential/logical standards for (perhaps nascent) accounts of qualia suggest that appeals to intuition alone may be used to support criticism of qualia.

    Another aspect is that if an appeal to intuition alone suffices to determine or otherwise influence the structure of qualia in a given account of them, that makes the idea of qualia a moving target with unarticulated structure. That makes the idea of qualia a moving target that can hide and change shape. Which is a situation we are all to familiar with on forum and find frustrating; don't just appeal to personal intuition and self evidence, and treat your opponents' criticism with the same standard of evidence as you use to support your beliefs. Here that's appeals to intuition.

    So how to read the article? Keep in mind that the text is intended to change intuitions of what is plausible or implausible regarding qualia, if one adapts one's intuitions about qualia on the fly and appeals to their self evidence, keep in mind that the article is trying to meet you where you're at; appeals to intuition about a largely uncharacterised or unarticulated idea. If they suffice for the qualia advocate, they suffice for Dennett's criticism. If they don't suffice for you, then you should agree with Dennett about the article's method's appropriateness, and should read his intuition pumps in good faith as explicit counter-intuitions regarding qualia. His intuitions simply differ from yours, go read why, he's gone through the trouble of writing them down and analysing them.
  • What is Dennett’s point against Strawson?
    Do you know anything about relevant research?Srap Tasmaner

    Relevant to what?

    You're better off asking @Isaac about neurology things.

    Attention reference: I'm sure you've seen this experiment regarding attention and experience before. How much you pay attention to stuff constrains what you see - of all the possible perceptual features formable during a given interaction, the ones that end up having phenomenal character (presence in subjective awareness) vary with how a person's situated and the task they're doing.

    Brain damage reference: people with agnosia are interesting, like those who can describe faces in terms of shape, colour, geometry, features... But not recognise who they're looking at. Highlighting that categorisation; seeing x as y; can decouple from experiences of x and being aware that it is y

    When referencing the idea that categorisation was a component part of experience, what I had in mind was the theory of constructed emotion.

    That "self evident upon introspection" and "correct and informative about the introspected event" are very much distinguished has a long history. Introspection about who we are, what we think, what we feel and explanations thereof are more post-hoc conjecture and revisionary history than the Cartesian immediacy we intuitively feel. "I know how I feel and why I feel it!", yeah, no we don't.
  • What is Dennett’s point against Strawson?
    Lots of gotchas in there..Olivier5

    @Pfhorrest's points in it were good for a broadly sympathetic construal of the qualia concept in a (reasonably) theory neutral way. I tried to write some of my suspicions about it here.
    *
    (The chat I had with @Isaac at the end of the thread is one of my favourite I've had on the forum, though it was tangential to qualia (tangent being qualia -> individuation of perceptual features -> realism of perceptual features)
    .



    Would be cool.
  • What is Dennett’s point against Strawson?


    There's a very long discussion here which might help a bit. About qualia, not specifically about Dennett. If you refuse to bracket what is self evident to you, I can't help you, though.
  • What is Dennett’s point against Strawson?
    Mental states cannot be explored by any other mean than introspection. The way they appear to us through introspection is pretty much the only data we have about them. No bona fide analysis of their "content" can start from a dogmatic position that the data is not true.Olivier5

    Let's assume that's true:

    (1) It still might be that exploring our phenomenal/experiential states rigorously leads us to doubt the folk theoretic notions we have regarding their elements. Accounts of phenomenal character arising from introspection can be revised.

    (2) It might be that how we categorise experience reflectively/introspectively is different from but related to the categorisation processes in experience (eg: how I feel now is pain, "I feel pain"), the introspective mapping of the experience to the description might be a different procedure from an awareness the state one is in belongs in an experiential category. There are introspective biases.

    (3) "What if I had a brain lesion right there?" Introspection alone cannot answer that, and it is relevant. There are relevant data streams introspection alone cannot access absent experiment.

    (4) There are altered states of experience (phantom limbs, ganzfeld type experiments, perceptual illusions, meditative states, mental illnesses and disabilities, brain lesion patients, effects of priming on perception, cognitive load and change blindness...) which are not available to everyone at all times. In order to discover variations in phenomenal character over bodies and what they do, one has to use a scientific approach in tandem with the careful analysis of self reports. Introspection alone gives you the biased data of one person's self reports analysing themselves.

    The premises which are provisionally accepted by any account of experience or consciousness deriving from introspection alone, then, might be part of the first word of any such analysis, but it's simply laziness to assume it must be the last because they have been accepted at the start.
  • What is Dennett’s point against Strawson?
    Lots of talk about eliminativism and gotcha games around it, not much talk about the dispute. Regarding "direct acquaintance" with "fundamental qualities". Advise reading Dennet's Quining Qualia rather than playing a gotcha game of "it's magic" vs "if you have experiences Dennett is wrong".

    "Qualia" is an unfamiliar term for something that could not be more familiar to each of us: the ways things seem to us. As is so often the case with philosophical jargon, it is easier to give examples than to give a definition of the term. Look at a glass of milk at sunset; the way it looks to you--the particular, personal, subjective visual quality of the glass of milk is the quale of your visual experience at the moment. The way the milk tastes to you then is another, gustatory quale, and how it sounds to you as you swallow is an auditory quale; These various "properties of conscious experience" are prime examples of qualia. Nothing, it seems, could you know more intimately than your own qualia; let the entire universe be some vast illusion, some mere figment of Descartes' evil demon, and yet what the figment is made of (for you) will be the qualia of your hallucinatory experiences. Descartes claimed to doubt everything that could be doubted, but he never doubted that his conscious experiences had qualia, the properties by which he knew or apprehended them.

    ...My claim, then, is not just that the various technical or theoretical concepts of qualia are vague or equivocal, but that the source concept, the "pretheoretical" notion of which the former are presumed to be refinements, is so thoroughly confused that even if we undertook to salvage some "lowest common denominator" from the theoreticians' proposals, any acceptable version would have to be so radically unlike the ill-formed notions that are commonly appealed to that it would be tactically obtuse--not to say Pickwickian--to cling to the term. Far better, tactically, to declare that there simply are no qualia at all.
    — Dennett

    If you can't suspend the impulse toward metaphysical speculation affirming the existence of consciousness upon seeing "something red", then you're simply not currently in the right frame of mind to learn anything from that kind of discussion. Whether mental states have the content "we feel"/"we expect" them to is roughly what's at stake - whether there is such a thing as mental content which is essentially distinguished from physical states is a separate but related issue.

    How anyone could expect to justify a position one way or the other on both issues with a gotcha game is beyond me.
  • Can I change my name to the opposite please?
    When you've decided exactly what name you want I'll change it for you.
  • Can I change my name to the opposite please?
    What would you like your name changed to?
  • Midgley vs Dawkins, Nietzsche, Hobbes, Mackie, Rand, Singer...


    How did Dawkins set evolutionary theory back by decades?
  • Determinism, Reversibility, Decoherence and Transaction
    Yes. Vectors are a way of dealing with multiple similar quantities which transform in similar ways. Some of those quantities may be related to one another, but there's nothing I can think of that makes the interpretation of the vector as anything more than a notational convenience.Kenosha Kid

    To clarify: let's imagine that someone's repeated a measurement of a mass twice. They've written both down. The first measurement I'll call "a", the second measurement I'll call "b". Which of these (if either), do you mean:

    (1) The process of aggregating both measurements into a vector (a,b) is not physically meaningful (I agree with that).
    (2) Representing things as vectors is nothing more than a notational convenience.

    I'll assume the premise:

    (3) Things adopted for the sole reason of notational convenience are not physically meaningful.

    I think that's justified from the remarks you've made about complex representations of mathematical objects being convenient tricks.

    So, I don't think you mean (2) if you also think (3), as that rules out vectors from being physically meaningful. So that goes for all vector quantities! And then typical objects of physics are no longer physically meaningful by that rule. So I'll assume you mean (1).

    I won't quote the rest, just sum up. A theory is tested empirically, not it's individual elements. If the theory as a whole (or a subset of elements, catering for irrelevancies to a particular experiment) yields otherwise inexplicable or more accurate predictions for experimental outcomes, it's a good theory.Kenosha Kid

    If you mean (1), I don't think it applies to the context I meant. I took something which was not physically meaningful (the complex number x+yi) because it had an imaginary component, fed that number through an isomorphism of structures into a real valued matrix which could not be ruled out of being physically meaningful on that basis. The two structures are equivalent, but the criterion of "must not contain an imaginary number" rules the first out of physical meaningfulness but not the second.

    I also don't believe you have applied this doctrine: "A theory is tested empirically, not its individual elements" consistently, though there is a lot of ambiguity between going from talk of whether an element in a theory is physically meaningful and whether the whole theory is good. Regardless, I see a few cases:

    (A) You are happy to declare that a whole theory is unphysical if it relies upon complex numbers.

    I don't see that as plausible since you've said you see the wavefunction as ontic in some regard, and it relies upon complex numbers. If the criterion of whether a theory is physically meaningful or meaningless is determined by the accuracy and precision of its predictions (rephrasing your quote), it won't care whether the theory contains complex numbers anyway - so declaring a theory non-physical on the basis of it requiring complex numbers is an equivocation. Up to suspicions about needing to remove complex quantities from physics, anyway.

    (B) You are happy to declare that an element of a theory is unphysical if it relies upon complex numbers.

    I see that as plausible, as there are examples of you doing it in the thread. Which goes against the other idea (up to ambiguities) that a theory is physically meaningful iff it makes accurate predictions, and seems in tension to me with having ontic commitments to the wavefunction.

    My remarks in thread have been in the context of (B), and I don't really want to get into a Motte and Bailey situation. Motte: complex numbers are unphysical. Bailey: the mark of a good theory is its capacity to produce accurate predictions. The issue in the Motte is to my mind about how one manages ontological commitments within theories (maintaining an ontic commitment to the wavefunction while claiming complex quantities are non-physical). The issue in the Bailey is to my mind the claim that good theories come with accurate predictions. I'm not picking a bone with the Bailey, I'm picking a bone with the Motte.

    The general perspective I'm coming at this from is some sort of scientific realism, I'm ontologically committed to the existence of entities in scientific theories. I strongly agree with this:

    Nature cannot care that much how we represent it.Kenosha Kid

    Which is why I'm pressing the issue; if nature doesn't care how we represent it, why would whether something could be physical or not vary with an isomorphism of structures? Why would a criterion to decide whether a structure is physical decide differently depending upon which representation of a structure you choose?
  • Determinism, Reversibility, Decoherence and Transaction
    Feel free to ignore or take this to PMs if you believe this is too much of a side issue @Kenosha Kid.

    We've never managed to measure anything that is a 2x2 matrix either. We use matrices a lot -- they are useful, but they are constructs. I don't think nature knows about them.Kenosha Kid

    Very skeptical of that. Whether a quantity can be physical or not should not depend on how it is recorded. Somehow individual measurements are physical but tabulating them makes them incapable of being physical. Nature can "know" about the vector elements but not the vector? The matrix elements but not the matrix they constitute together?

    Given the way they enter into the equations, my feeling is that it's the latter, but I'm not trying to make that particular case in the OP. However complex things are at root, empirically they manifest as real.Kenosha Kid

    "empirically manifesting as real" and "being physically meaningful" don't play so well together I think. Depends on how they're fleshed out.

    EG: if the criterion for a theory (as a whole) being physical is successful prediction of experimental results ("manifesting as real"), it's silent on theory elements. A conception like that wouldn't let you intervene mid argument with a physical insight to conjecture a next step or ignore a class of solutions, since it doesn't constrain theory elements at all, only constraining theories' being "physical" as a whole by resultant predictions.

    Or: if the criterion for a theory element being physically meaningful is simply that it is part of a theory which produces successful predictions, then the complex conjugated solutions are physical since they are part of the theory. But that also trivialises physical insight, as the criterion cannot distinguish between theory components as before.

    Or: if the criterion for a theory element being physically meaningful requires that it is a measurable quantity, then only measurable quantities in theories can be physically meaningful - and that rules out the discussion item (as @SophistiCat implied with his observables comment).

    From what I've seen, that is how physical meaning/the property "is physical" is used, to operate on steps mid argument, to rule out solution classes, to declare something a mathematical trick or not. A criterion that either makes all theory elements equally physical, does not care about theory elements at all, or requires that all concepts employed have measurable values can't suffice here.
  • Determinism, Reversibility, Decoherence and Transaction
    This might trivialize C. Here's a quote from the web, from an educational perspective:jgill

    A vector space isomorphism is only defined between two vector spaces over the same fieldjgill

    Aye. All the "i" is doing when thinking of C as a 2d vector space over R is keeping track of the second coordinate. It is an isomorphism of vector spaces over the reals, but not an isomorphism of fields. So in that respect, it might be misleading for me to have said that "the complex numbers form a 2d vector space" over R, because "the complex numbers" are a field. You and the quoted thing are right! My mistake.

    I wrote a version of the post you responded to that only used that fact, but considered it too weak as it didn't respect the field structure. The second fact; the isomorphism of the field C with a field of 2 by 2 real matrices; I believe suffices for my point.
  • Determinism, Reversibility, Decoherence and Transaction
    Regarding the imaginary numbers can't be physical thing, and the problem being having an imaginary part.

    Complex numbers form a 2D vector space over the reals which is isomorphic to (vectors take the form (Re(z), Im(z), adding real and imaginary parts works just the same as adding x and y components, it's why the plane representation of complex numbers works).

    Complex numbers as a field are isomorphic to a collection of 2 by 2 matrices.

    If it's impossible for an imaginary quantity to be physical, and it's possible for a real quantity to be physical, why would it be the case that one complex number representation (x+yi) can't be physical, and another (2 by 2 matrices of real numbers) might be physical? I think that leads to three possibilities:

    (1) The property "is physical" (or "is physically meaningful" or whatever) is not preserved by isomorphism of structures.
    (2) Neither complex numbers nor real numbers can be physical.
    (3) Both complex numbers and real numbers can be physical.

    I find (1) implausible: all the mathematical properties of an algebraic structure are preserved over isomorphism, so whether something is physically meaningful or not would then have to depend on something extra-mathematical that somehow varies with an isomorphism. Could lead to situations where two models have all the same equations and experimental predictions but one is somehow physically meaningful and the other isn't.

    I find (2) implausible: describing reality well is what good theories do. Assuming it leads to absurdities like while the concept of mass might be physical, the number associated with every mass measurement cannot be.

    Left with (3). Though it's got quite a lot of work left to do in it. How "physical meaning" distributes over the components of a physical model is something I've wondered about since seeing geometric series infinite sums used in inelastic rebound; computing the infinite sum assumes an infinite amount of collisions with arbitrarily small bounces. But that's not a "physically meaningful" part of the model.
  • Determinism, Reversibility, Decoherence and Transaction
    Another self indulgent spitball from me. Thank you for the free physics lessons.

    But these aren't physical either. It is simply that complex exponentials are much easier to manipulate than individual sines and cosines. I'm not trying to do the wavefunction down, though. Whatever its ontology, it is important for predicting experimental outcomes and therefore corresponds to something physical. But no complex quantity can be physical in itself, i.e. we can't observe it in nature.Kenosha Kid

    What stops complex quantities from being physical?
  • Bannings
    Closing it again. Seeing as it immediately derailed.