I think this is a wrong way to look at protention though. It's not that we see or missee a future that is there - it's that we're incessantly projecting into the future. I don't think there's anything mystical about this. — csalisbury
If we're not seeing the future, then protention is not, contrary to Husserl's claims, preception. We can of course project into the future without seeing it in any sense. This is ordinarily how we think about these things, and is not what Husserl is claiming, so far as I see it.
To make clear just how weird this is, say you're listening to a piece of music you've never heard before. You have certain expectations, perhaps, based on genre stereotypes and certain biologically or culturally ingrained notions of how music ought to proceed, involving tonality and resolution, rhythm, and so on. Let's say that you're broadly correct about which direction the piece will go: it doesn't pull a fast one on you so hard that you think 'what the hell just happened?' What is the best way to describe this situation? Did you
perceive the piece as it approached, in the way you might see a truck approaching? That is, is it
in virtue of the perceptible qualities of the piece that you understood what course it would take? It seems not – for you would have the same expectations
regardless of whether the piece actually went that way, making the qualities of the piece itself irrelevant to your expectations and protentions. But if protention is a matter of
perception, it must have been in virtue of
perceiving the piece that this was possible.
It's hard to answer this because I don't see the difference between the two alternatives. A note is not dominant in-and-of-itself, but only by relation to the tonic. The idea of tonic-colored dominant which doesn't rely on a recently heard tonic is a contradiction in terms. — csalisbury
Must I retain a tonic in order to perceive the dominant as tonic-flavored? Is it so implausible, for example, that I might be stimulated to hear a tonic-flavored dominant out of the blue,
without actually having perceived a tonic beforehand? In such a way that I could not phenomenologically distinguish between these? If so, it seems implausible to say that I experience the dominant in relation to the tonic in virtue of literally retaining the tonic in perception, rather than there just being facts about my present perception that are influenced by immediately preceding perceptions.