innatism vs Kant's "a priori" All a priori ideas are universal coming from a place we cannot conventionally experience by our limited senses. Yet we are able to tap into this intellect(universal laws) through practical-pure reasoning where there is no self interest or sense perception. Hence pure. As rational beings we then make determinant judgements a posteriori or reflective judgements a priori.
A priori always precedes a posteriori otherwise you would live off of mere animal instinct. It is our capacity of practical reasoning we are able to abstract ideas to explain our empirical experiences. By this capacity we also discover laws which cannot be sensed but yet hold universal sway morally on rational beings. I.e The law of contradiction shows if we made lieing a universal law, nature couldn't operate. We can't test this but we know it a priori.
Where these laws and ideas come from, Kant doesn't even know. He says himself he can rationalize the categorical imperatives, but cannot comprehend the cause of them. As for why man is able to give these laws unto himself adopting the maxim of freedom, Kant speculates intelligent design but doesn't postulate anything. He merely lays down the moral laws already there universally conceived only by practical reasoning