Comments

  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Then it is also false regarding your belief?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    It's logical in the sense that the sentence contains no contradiction. And given the facts, it's false.Michael

    Well, you've only lied about it raining, not about your belief, so is it true or false?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Correspondence theory would have that "P is true" simply means P, not "I believe that P".Isaac

    Yes, I edited that comment to "The absurdity is in someone asserting ‘P is true but I don’t believe P’", but too late it seems. [Edit: Oops looks like the edit didn't take. I had edited it to be 'P but I don't believe P' (or 'P but I believe not-P). Oh well.]

    If we're to accept this, then there should be no absurdity. There is absurdity, so we must reject this. Wittgenstein, Moore and Ramsey all reject it in different ways, but the point of the paradox is to get us to reject it somehow.Isaac

    Right, well, at least you accept that there is a paradox, unlike several others here.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Let me see if I follow your thinking here. Let’s assume it’s not really raining, but I lie about it. I assert ‘It’s raining but I believe it’s not raining’. This is a perfectly logical thing to say?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    The absurdity is in someone asserting ‘P and I don’t believe that P’ (or ‘P and I believe that not-P’).
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    There are lots of reasons that someone might lie. But what does their reason for lying have to do with the supposed absurdity of the assertion?Michael

    I don't see what difference lying makes. Even if I were to lie in asserting that it's raining, what sense does it make to also assert that I don't believe that it's raining?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    I did explain it above. You didn't respond to it (to both aspects of it). To repeat:

    Why would you assert it to be true if you don't believe it? And why would you not believe it if you are asserting it to be true?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    My name is Andrew. The Moon is made of cheese. Liquorice is delicious.

    There are many reasons that one might assert something that they don't believe to be true. But what does the motivation of the speaker have to do with it?
    Michael

    As I said, the absurdity is in the dual assertion. You need to deal with both parts of the assertion, not just one. Otherwise, you're not really talking about Moore's paradox.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Asserting something to be true, while simultaneously asserting your belief that it's not true. Why would you assert it to be true if you don't believe it? And why would you not believe it if you are asserting it to be true?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    You might have missed my edit. Again, from SEP:

    The common explanation of Moore’s absurdity is that the speaker has managed to contradict himself without uttering a contradiction. So the sentence is odd because it is a counterexample to the generalization that anyone who contradicts himself utters a contradiction.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    As given in the Wikipedia article I posted above:

    It can be true at a particular time both that P, and that I do not believe that P.
    I can assert or believe one of the two at a particular time.
    It is absurd to assert or believe both of them at the same time.

    Edit: As I also posted above, as given in SEP:

    The common explanation of Moore’s absurdity is that the speaker has managed to contradict himself without uttering a contradiction. So the sentence is odd because it is a counterexample to the generalization that anyone who contradicts himself utters a contradiction.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    The claim I have made is that the meaning and truth of the sentence "it is raining outside" has nothing to do with the speaker's belief, and that it is possible to believe that it is not raining outside even if it in fact is. Therefore there is no logical contradiction in the sentence "it is raining outside but I believe that it is not raining outside".Michael

    That's all true, but the absurdity is when one asserts both together. Even if I were to lie about it raining outside, it still is (and/or sounds) absurd to make that dual assertion.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Because it sounds absurd. Doesn't it?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    So why does it matter if "one cannot believe both that it is raining and that it is not at the same time"?Michael

    It matters when one asserts (e.g.): "It is raining outside, but I believe that it's not raining outside".
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Maybe a better example of Moore's paradox is the one given in the SEP:

    (M) I went to the pictures last Tuesday, but I don’t believe that I did.[...]

    The common explanation of Moore’s absurdity is that the speaker has managed to contradict himself without uttering a contradiction. So the sentence is odd because it is a counterexample to the generalization that anyone who contradicts himself utters a contradiction.

    Wikipedia provides the following explanation:

    The more fundamental way of setting up the problem starts from the following three premises:

    It can be true at a particular time both that P, and that I do not believe that P.
    I can assert or believe one of the two at a particular time.
    It is absurd to assert or believe both of them at the same time.

    [Additionally, the absurdity arises only when stated as a first-person, present-tensed belief; e.g.] "It is raining, and I don't believe that it is raining.
    Wikipedia
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    No, "1" is a symbol. So long as each 1 represents a different object there is no problem to add 1+1 and get 2.Metaphysician Undercover

    Does “1” refer to an object called “a number”?
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Isn't this obvious to you? If I count the object as "1" at time x, then I count the very same object as 2 at time y, this is a faulty count, counting the same object twice. Two instances of seeing the very same object, therefore a faulty count if I say there's two objects.Metaphysician Undercover

    So we can’t add 1+1 - is that your argument? Because “1” is identical to itself? All mathematicians are wrong? How is “1” an object anyway? I note this is your first introduction of time into the scenario. I thought you meant the same type of object, not the same object counted again some time later. Like how we count three apples; they’re three of the same type of object counted on one occasion, not one object counted on three different occasions. But how we got to this point was that you stated:

    if "1" refers to an object called "a number", then "2" cannot refer to two distinct occurrences of that same number, or else we would not have two, but only one still.Metaphysician Undercover

    So your argument is about numbers, not objects. This implies we can’t even add 1+1 because there is only one “object” which is the number “1”. Okay pal, whatever.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    If "1'" refers to an object called a number, then "1+1" indicates two distinct instances of the same object, which is still just the same object. So "1+1" would signify only 1 object if this were the case.Metaphysician Undercover

    How can "two distinct instances of the same object" amount to only one object?

    Therefore, to remain consistent with common usage and adhere to true principles of numerology, we must accept the conclusion that "1" does not refer to a mathematical object called a number because this would allow the representation of two distinct instances of the same object "1" to be the same as "2". But according to common usage in counting, "2" cannot refer to a second instance of the same thing.Metaphysician Undercover

    This is like arguing over the rules of chess with someone who doesn't know the rules. I'm done.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    No, that's clearly wrong, mathematics has to do with the desire to count and measure things. Counting and measuring are desirable things. Therefore contrary to your ignorant assertion, assigning a quantitative value to things is the result of the desirability of something, counting and measuring, because these are desirable things to do, there's a purpose to them.Metaphysician Undercover

    Did you even look at the Wikipedia page I linked to earlier on Value (mathematics)? It's quite short; here's most of it:

    In general, a mathematical value may be any definite mathematical object. In elementary mathematics, this is most often a number – for example, a real number such as π or an integer such as 42.

    — The value of a variable or a constant is any number or other mathematical object assigned to it.
    — The value of a mathematical expression is the result of the computation described by this expression when the variables and constants in it are assigned values.
    — The value of a function, given the value(s) assigned to its argument(s), is the value assumed by the function for these argument values.

    For example, if the function f is defined by f(x) = 2x^2 – 3x + 1, then assigning the value 3 to its argument x yields the function value 10, since f(3) = 2·3^2 – 3·3 + 1 = 10.

    A mathematical value can be a number, like 8 or 163 or pi. A set of numbers, e.g. the set of natural numbers, is a set of values. The meaning of "value" in this sense is completely different to the meaning of "value" in the sense of "desirable things". There is a value in using numbers, no doubt, but there are also the numbers themselves, each of which can be called a "value". These are different meanings of the word "value". You were clearly not aware of this.

    And as I explained in the last post, if "1" refers to an object called "a number", then "2" cannot refer to two distinct occurrences of that same number, or else we would not have two, but only one still.Metaphysician Undercover

    1+1=1?

    Therefore that act of counting independent of counting something, is just an exercise in remembering an arbitrary ordering of symbolsMetaphysician Undercover

    Right, sort of like remembering the alphabet. Are you claiming it's not possible? Just because we can count (and do simple arithmetic) independently of "things" does not imply that we cannot count things or that we never count things.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    The point is that it is relative to something. Whether it is relative to my own personal decision, or agreed upon decision (convention), does not change the nature of what a value is, itself.Metaphysician Undercover

    How is, e.g. the set of natural numbers, relative to your own personal decision? Also, how can it be relative if your decision "does not change the nature of what a value is, itself"? You're talking out of both sides of your mouth.

    there you go again with your uncharitable interpretation for the sake of straw manning. You, yourself, introduced ambiguity onto the meaning of "value", trying to distance your use of "value" from my use of value, for the sake of your straw man, when no such separation is warranted.Metaphysician Undercover

    The ambiguity exists in the language because the word "value" has more than one meaning. If you think that mathematical value, or the set of natural numbers, has anything to do with "the desirability of a thing", then you are plainly incorrect.

    Look, it is completely arbitrary that the symbol "2" represents the quantitative value which we call "two". To remove the arbitrariness we might assume an object, a number, which "2" and "two" refer to.Metaphysician Undercover

    That's an arbitrariness of the symbols used to denote a value, not an arbitrariness of the value itself. For example, the different expressions "2+2" and "4" both have the same mathematical value: 4.

    That two distinct things are equal, and therefore have the same value, is inherently arbitrary, but that they are distinct individuals, allowing us to number, or count them individually, is grounded in real difference.Metaphysician Undercover

    You're aware that we can count independently of counting things, right? The arbitrariness you seem to be referring to is in what things we consider to be the same, not in the numbering system.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Therefore that value is "relative" to that system.Metaphysician Undercover

    This appears quite different to your previous comments, where the value was not relative to a mathematical system, but instead relative to you:

    Otherwise I could arbitrarily say that a chair and a table have the same value to me, therefore they are the same intelligible object.Metaphysician Undercover

    You also demonstrated the same misunderstanding about "value" previously, where you asked and asserted:

    Do you even know what "value" means? It refers to the desirability of a thing, or what a thing is worth.Metaphysician Undercover

    It is clear that you have had this meaning of "value" in mind the entire time, and have misunderstood the meaning of "value" as used in mathematics, and by most of us here.

    The principles that the system is based in, the arbitrariness of the system, is a further matter.Metaphysician Undercover

    A "further matter" that you don't care to explain? You didn't claim that it was "the principles that the system is based in" which were arbitrary; you claimed that it was value itself. You said:

    That's simply the nature of a value, because value is relative there is a degree of arbitrariness.Metaphysician Undercover

    In what sense is a mathematical value arbitrary? There's no need to answer, because you clearly weren't referring to mathematical value when you said this.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    I just can't see how the fact that a specific variable can be assigned different values, is at all relevant. That's simply the nature of a value, because value is relative there is a degree of arbitrariness. One dollar appears to be a constant value, but when considered within the context of the international market, it is variable.Metaphysician Undercover

    You don't seem familiar with the mathematical use of the term "value", which can describe any number or any result of a calculation (such as "2+2"). If you are familiar with this term, then I don't understand why you would describe this type of value as being "relative" or "arbitrary". Nobody else is talking about "value" in terms of worth.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    And, if I say "2+2", you could infer that I am taking about the quantity represented by "4", but in no way am I talking about the quantity represented by "4". You simply apply some logical premise and make that conclusion.Metaphysician Undercover

    There is no "logical premise" involved; that's simply how we use mathematical equations: the equals sign means that the value on the left is equal to the value on the right. "2+2=4" is a mathematical equation. To make the case that each side of the equation is different in a way which is unrelated to their values, i.e. in their symbols, or in what those symbols refer to, is just being a troll. Obviously, they are different in that sense; just look at the bloody symbols. That difference does not need to be pointed out. You are trolling for a response, and I won't oblige you any further.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    MY point is that "different expressions of the same value" refer to different things.Metaphysician Undercover

    You repeat the confusion. "Different expressions of the same value" are different wrt their expressions (or "representations"), but the same wrt their value.

    "Ten dimes" refers to something different than "four quarters".Metaphysician Undercover

    Yes, but "ten dimes" and "four quarters" have the same value; they both "refer" to a value of one dollar. You have already demonstrated how problematic and confusing this becomes with an example such as "2+2=4".

    Edit: There is no philosophical significance in pointing out that a dime is different to a quarter, or that "2" is different to "4". It goes without saying. You clearly exploit those cases where the values are the same (but the expressions are different) merely to provoke a response.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    This is how I represent "one dollar", like that or like this, $1. Something equal to a dollar is "ten dimes", or "four quarters". I really do not believe that you can't see the difference, I think you're in denial.Metaphysician Undercover

    I see. You are emphasising the difference in representation. This is no different to what I mean when I say that they are different expressions of the same value. The point is that both sides of a mathematical equation have the same value (again: the same quantity), despite being different "representations" of that value.

    You seem to think that the law of identity has some bearing on mathematics, or that A=A is somehow relevant to mathematical equations. I fail to understand what the relevance is. There would be little point using mathematical equations to state, e.g., 4=4. It seems that you just enjoy the confusion you create by treating the law of identity like a mathematical equation, or vice versa.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    If you cannot see the difference between representing the value "one dollar", (which is represented as $!), and representing something equal to a dollar ("four quarters", or "ten dimes"), then I think you've got a problem.Metaphysician Undercover

    Feel free to explain the difference between "representing the value one dollar" and "representing something equal to a dollar" to anyone who cares to listen.
  • Is anyone here a moral objectivist?
    Fair enough. I was only trying to make clear that I wasn't disagreeing with you.
  • Is anyone here a moral objectivist?
    And (in agreement with you), as @boethius himself already quoted:

    Moral realism (in the robust sense; cf. moral universalism for the minimalist sense) holds that such propositions are about robust or mind-independent facts, that is, not facts about any person or group's subjective opinion, but about objective features of the world.Meta-ethics
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    So, "2+2" does not represent a value, it represents two distinct values related with "+", and we say that this is equal to the value of "4".Metaphysician Undercover

    “2+2” is equal to a value of 4. I don’t see how this can be so difficult for you.

    You are no longer arguing about identity. You are now arguing against the mathematical equation which you formerly said you did not deny. I have no interest in trying to teach or convince you of basic mathematics that most children can master.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    If it is true that "4" expresses a value, then "2+2" does not express a value.Metaphysician Undercover

    2+2=4. You said that you don't deny this equation. How can "2+2" and "4" be equal if "2+2" does not express a value (i.e. a quantity, number, amount)?

    Do you see that if "4" is an example of an expression of value, then in "2+2" there are two distinct values expressed, "2" and "2" whereas only one value "4" is expressed with "4"?Metaphysician Undercover

    What does '+' do?
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    That's because we qualified value with "quantitative" value.Metaphysician Undercover

    Yes, because our discussion was in the context of mathematics. Or do you think that mathematics is all about monetary value (i.e. desirability/worth)? Don’t be daft.
  • If Brain States are Mental States...
    1. Epistemological: the identity of mind adherent has to claim that Jack, in the scenario, is referring to a brain state. But Jack doesn't know anything about brains, let alone brain states. Does it make sense to say that someone who doesn't know they're referring to brain states is really referring to brain states when they talk about being in pain? If that's true, shouldn't the person be aware they're communicating all this brain-state information to another person when they talk of pain?RogueAI

    I don’t see why it doesn’t make sense. If we assume mind-brain state identity, then using either mind state vocabulary or brain state vocabulary is making reference to the same thing, even if unintentionally. Same goes for your points 2 and 3. And I still don’t see how different vocabularies entails different states.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    By the way, in case I didn't make this clear last time, I consider "different expressions of the same value" to be ambiguous nonsense, and "different ways of expressing the same value" does very little to clarify what you could possibly mean. Do you even know what "value" means? It refers to the desirability of a thing, or what a thing is worth. How do you apprehend "2+2", or "4", as an expression of what a thing is worth?Metaphysician Undercover

    Perhaps you are unaware that a word can have more than one meaning or use. You seemed to have little difficulty understanding what I was talking about when I spoke of “value or quantity”. I also assume you were not talking about value as “the desirability of a thing” when you said:

    It is only by assigning equality to distinct things that we are able to count them One apple is equal to an orange, and then we count them, 1,2. So apprehending different things as having an equal value allows us to count them, 1,2,3,4....Metaphysician Undercover
  • If Brain States are Mental States...
    Nice argument. However, it seems to demonstrate (or assume?) only that brain state vocabulary is not identical to mental state vocabulary. How do you get from there to brain states are not mental states?
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Your point is simply that "2+2" and "4" are written differently or use different symbols. Or, as I said earlier, they are different expressions of the same value, or different ways of expressing the same value. Very profound :roll:
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Quite obviously,"2 apples + 2 apples" signifies two distinct groups of two apples, and the "+" represents an operation of putting the two groups of two apples together into one group.Metaphysician Undercover

    So you agree that the group resulting from this operation of addition is “4 apples”? That is, you agree that “2 apples + 2 apples” = “4 apples”?

    There is no such two distinct groups of two, nor the operation of addition signified by "4 apples".Metaphysician Undercover

    It is obviously signified by the equation “2 apples + 2 apples = 4 apples”. Both sides of the equation are equal in value or quantity. They “represent the same thing” in terms of value or quantity, which is the point of the mathematical equation. I’m not sure what point you are trying to make instead.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    We cannot count apples and oranges unless we say that an apple is equal to an orange. It is only by assigning equality to distinct things that we are able to count them One apple is equal to an orange, and then we count them, 1,2. So apprehending different things as having an equal value allows us to count them, 1,2,3,4....Metaphysician Undercover

    And why does "2 apples + 2 apples" "not represent the same thing" as "4 apples"?
  • Is philosophy a curse?
    The real discovery is the one which enables me to stop doing philosophy when I want to. The one that gives philosophy peace, so that it is no longer tormented by questions which bring itself into question. — Wittgenstein PI § 133
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    I don't deny that two plus two equals four.

    I only assert the obvious, that "2+2", which represents an operation of addition, does not represent the same thing as "4",
    Metaphysician Undercover

    If ““2+2”...does not represent the same thing as “4””, then in what sense are they equal?