Comments

  • A first cause is logically necessary
    It is you who is being ambiguous, with your use of "distance". If the word is meant to signify that there is a separation between the base of the mountain and the peak, that is self-evident. But if the word is meant to signify that this separation has a specific value, number of feet, meters, or whatever, without being measured, then this cannot be true. How do you think it is possible that there is a specific value attached to this separation if no one has actually done the work of assigning that value?Metaphysician Undercover

    Did you read the next part of my comment where I said "that the distance of one mountain is given the label '8,849 m' is a consequence of our measurement"?

    Obviously, "space" is a "mental fabrication".Metaphysician Undercover

    It's certainly not "obvious". Space is often thought of as being mind-independent, notably by scientific realists, and I suspect also most laymen. Idealists, scientific instrumentalists, and Kantians may think differently, but such positions are not self-evident.

    Also, a materialist would have to say the same, because "space" could not refer to any type of material.Metaphysician Undercover

    I should note that I use "materialism" and "physicalism" interchangeably, and that physicalism "encompasses matter, but also energy, physical laws, space, time, structure, physical processes, information, state, and forces, among other things."
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    No, I'm saying when you examine the entire set of regressive causality and ask, "What caused everything to be infinitely regressive?" there is no prior cause. It exactly the same as taking a set of finite regressive causality and asking, "What caused everything to be finitely regressive?"

    The answer is the same. There is no prior reason for its being, therefore, it just is. This is the first cause for all chains of causality.
    Philosophim

    So you're saying that there is both an infinite regress of causes and that there is a first cause. Do you not see the contradiction?
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    Take the set of all regressive causality, A.
    What prior existence caused A to be?
    There is nothing, A is A because it exists. Thus it exists without a prior explanation for its being, and is thus a first cause.
    Philosophim

    You're saying that the set of all causes is itself a cause. This is a category error. The set itself doesn't cause anything and so isn't a cause. The term "cause" refers to the members of the set, not the set itself.

    Your argument is akin to saying that the set of all integers is the first number. It makes no sense.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    It is not a basic human right to be on the ballot for POTUS. There are criteria spelled out in the constitution.wonderer1

    So you're saying I can't run for President? Damn that Constitution, how dare it tell me what I can and can't do!
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    That is exactly what I'm agreeing with. And if there is no prior cause for its existence, point c notes that this is the first cause. It exists without prior explanation for its being.Philosophim

    You're saying that if either a) or b) is true then c) is true. This makes no sense. If either a) or b) is true then c) is false.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    My apologies if I'm not understanding your point. What did I miss?Philosophim

    These are the options you gave:

    a. There is always a X for every Y. (infinite prior causality).
    b. The X/Y causal chain eventually wraps back to Y/X (infinitely looped causality)
    c. There comes a time within a causal chain when there is only Y, and nothing prior to Y. This Y is Alpha. (first cause)

    You then ask:

    "Why would it be that there exists an infinite prior or infinitely looped causality in existence?"

    I am suggesting that perhaps there is no answer. Perhaps it is simply a brute fact that there is always a X for every Y, or simply a brute fact that the X/Y causal chain eventually wraps back to Y/X. This is simply where the explanation ends.

    So it is simply a brute fact that there is no first cause.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    FYI, NOS and I went over this starting here.

    Just to save you time.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    So you think that both that both the party convicted and the party acquitted are liable?NOS4A2

    I think that impeachment and removal from office has nothing to do with a criminal prosecution. The outcome of one has no bearing on the outcome of the other.

    Exactly as the DOJ determined in 2000.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)


    And as per the paper that both Relativist and I have referenced:

    The Constitution permits a former President to be criminally prosecuted for the same offenses for which he was impeached by the House and acquitted by the Senate

    As I mentioned before, your reading denies the antecedent. That he can be held criminally liable if removed from office isn’t that he can’t be held criminally liable if not removed from office.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    No one said he cannot be criminally prosecuted.NOS4A2

    You did.

    He was acquitted. So he is not liable and subject to Indictment, Trial, Judgement and Punishment, according to Law.NOS4A2
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    The Constitution permits a former President to be criminally prosecuted for the same offenses for which he was impeached by the House and acquitted by the Senate while in office.Relativist

    Well, Trump was impeached and acquitted while not office so clearly this doesn’t apply.

    :wink:
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)


    Interesting quote from Mitch. He votes to acquit on the supposed technicality that the Senate has no jurisdiction given that Trump was no longer President and that it should be a matter for the DOJ. But then @NOS4A2 suggests that because the Senate acquitted then the DOJ no longer has jurisdiction.

    It’s a cheat code to get away with any crime. :roll:
  • A first cause is logically necessary


    I’ll be clearer then.

    To stand where I am now I don’t have to have stood in every adjacent space behind me first. I am simply born at a particular place (the start) and travel from there.

    This is very unlike having counted every negative integer in order, which strikes me as being nonsensical.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    It is "logically necessary" to "begin counting" somewhere in a beginning-less sequence just as it is to be standing somewhere on the Earth's surface180 Proof

    I don’t think this is an apt analogy. Counting is a process, standing isn’t.

    Obviously someone can simply speak a single number without having spoken any smaller number first.

    I’m specifically addressing the case of saying that, as of right now, I have already counted all the negative integers in order.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    If (post-Newtonian) spacetime describes an unbounded, finite magnitude like the surface of the Earth (or torus, Klein bottle, Möbius loop, etc) – does not have edges or end-points – then the tenses of events (i.e. inertial reference-frames) are relative and not absolute (e.g. "the past" "the present").180 Proof

    This would be the B series concept of time that I mentioned in my comment?
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    Correct. Which is why when we reach a point in any chain of causality where there is no prior causality for its existence, 'it simply is', that we've reached the first cause from which the rest of the chain or set followsPhilosophim

    I'm not sure you're even reading what I'm writing.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    "It simply is" is the first cause.Philosophim

    The explanation might end with "there is no first cause". This explanatory end isn't itself a first cause.Michael

    It makes no sense to say that "there is no first cause" is the first cause.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    We are actually talking about the same thing. :) Where explanations end is the start of causation. A first cause has no prior explanation for its existence, "it simply is". That base, "X simply is" is a first cause from which other causes can happen. My point is that whether the universe has an finite or infinitely regressive causality, the reason why it is one way over the reason that it isn't another way is, "It simply is." There is no prior explanation or reason for its existence.Philosophim

    You misunderstand. Given one of these options:

    1. A → B → C → ...
    2. ... → A → B → C → ...
    3. ... → A → B → C → ... → A → B → C → ...

    I'm suggesting that "it simply is" the case that (2) is correct or that "it simply is" the case that (3) is correct.

    So, "it simply is" the case that there is no first cause.

    Where explanations end is the start of causation.Philosophim

    The explanation might end with "there is no first cause". This explanatory end isn't itself a first cause.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    This is why, in metaphysics, it is important to understand that a thing must have actually been measured in order to have a measurement. As in the examples above, the mountain is commonly assumed to have a "height" prior to being measured, and the jar full of marbles is commonly assumed to have a "quantity" prior to being counted.Metaphysician Undercover

    This is very ambiguous.

    There is a distance between the base of a mountain and its peak even if we never measure it. And this distance can be less than the distance between the base and peak of some other mountain even if we never measure either.

    That the distance of one mountain is given the label "8,849 m" is a consequence of our measurement.

    Unless you want to argue that space itself is some sort of "mental fabrication"? An idealist might agree with you. A materialist (or dualist) won't.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    I ask the same question about 1. Why is there a finite limit to causality? The answer cannot be found by looking to something prior. So the answer is that 'It simply is.' Its the same answer in each case. Essentially the question is, "What caused existence?" And in all cases, there is no prior explanation. The first cause is, "It simply is."Philosophim

    As I also said in that post:

    It may simply be a brute fact that there is no first cause. That explanations end somewhere isn't that causation starts somewhere.Michael

    In other words, it could be that "it simply is" the case that causality is infinite.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    Although I do agree that a first cause seems to make the most sense.

    @180 Proof referenced a "first number" as a reductio ad absurdum against the claim that there must be a first cause. I think a more appropriate consideration is a first counted number. Counting has to start somewhere, and each second of passed time is a type of counting.

    If the past is infinite then the present is the end of an infinite sequence of events. An infinite sequence of events has no end. Therefore, the past is not infinite.

    Although this is perhaps only true if an A series concept of time is correct (e.g. presentism or the growing block universe). If a B series concept is correct (e.g. eternalism) then the above reasoning may not hold.
  • A first cause is logically necessary
    4. Alpha logic: An alpha cannot have any prior reasoning that explains why it came into existence. An Alpha's reason for its existence can never be defined by the Z's that follow it. If an Alpha exists, its own justification for existence, is itself. We could say, "The reversal of Z's causality logically lead up to this Alpha," But we cannot say "Z is the cause of why Alpha could, or could not exist." Plainly put, the rules concluded within a universe of causality cannot explain why an Alpha exists.

    5. Infinitely prior, and infinitely looped causality, all have one final question of causality that needs answering. "Why would it be that there exists an infinite prior or infinitely looped causality in existence? These two terms will be combined into one, "Infinite causality.
    Philosophim

    So there are three supposed options:

    1. A → B → C → ...
    2. ... → A → B → C → ...
    3. ... → A → B → C → ... → A → B → C → ...

    In (4) you say that if (1) is true then A has no cause.

    In (5) you ask "why is either (2) or (3) the case?".

    Notice that these address different considerations. It is equally appropriate to ask "why is (1) the case?".

    It may simply be a brute fact that there is no first cause. That explanations end somewhere isn't that causation starts somewhere.
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    There is no right or left. It's uniparty all the way down.NOS4A2

    And when it comes to policy, he’s as much part of the uniparty as anyone.Mikie

    Uniparty? There's a huge difference between them. One of them is leading to cases like this:

    Emergency rooms not required to perform life-saving abortions, federal appeals court rules
  • Bannings
    if I had the steely self-restraint of a MichaelBaden

    The secret is to be dead inside.
  • Bannings
    Care to share the script?Lionino

    I was actually joking but as you asked I quickly threw something together. Requires this extension: https://www.tampermonkey.net/

    // ==UserScript==
    // @name         Replace Israel Palestine Hamas
    // @namespace    http://tampermonkey.net/
    // @version      2024-01-02
    // @description  try to take over the world!
    // @author       You
    // @match        https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/10926/*
    // @icon         data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAAAACH5BAEKAAEALAAAAAABAAEAAAICTAEAOw==
    // @grant        none
    // ==/UserScript==
    
    (function() {
        'use strict';
    
        const items = ['foo', 'bar', 'baz']
    
        document.querySelectorAll('.Message').forEach((element) => {
    
            [/\bisrael.*?\b/ig, /\bjew.*?\b/ig, /\bislam.*?\b/ig, /\bmuslim.*?\b/ig, /\bpalestin.*?\b/ig, /hamas/ig].forEach((pattern) => {
                element.innerHTML = element.innerHTML.replace(pattern, items[Math.floor(Math.random()*items.length)])
            })
    
        });
    
      
    })();
    

    Applies to "Israel", "Palestine", "Islam", "Jew", "Muslim", and "Hamas".

    Example:

    uqxa0lm8h75iyfip.png

    Could also just have it use the same word or phrase for every replacement, e.g. "Michael is awesome"?
  • Bannings
    I just happen to be right when everyone else is wrong so it's justified.Hanover

    Given that knowledge is often defined as justified true belief it then suggests that there's such a thing as unjustified true belief and justified false belief. So your claim here is a non sequitur.

    There's some philosophy for ya. :joke:
  • Bannings
    I’m not a particularly proactive mod, but I’m very much aware of how hard it is to moderate debates like the Middle East threadWayfarer

    I have a script that replaces the words "Israel", "Palestine", and "Hamas" with random words. Makes it easy.
  • Why be moral?
    he is specifically stating a moral outcome does affect the world and the world will be different if the outcome is differentHanover

    This wording is ambiguous.

    If pleasure is moral and suffering is immoral then a pleasurable outcome will be a moral outcome and a sufferable outcome will be an immoral outcome, and a pleasurable outcome does indeed have a practical difference to a sufferable outcome, and so according to an extensional reading there is a practical difference between a moral outcome and an immoral outcome.

    But that’s not what I’m arguing. I’m arguing that a pleasurable outcome where pleasure is moral has no practical difference to a pleasurable outcome where pleasure is immoral (or just not moral). According to an intensional reading there isn’t a practical difference between a moral outcome and an immoral outcome.

    If there were a practical difference then we could empirically distinguish the presence or absence of moral goodness but given that moral goodness is said to be a non-natural property it then follows that we cannot empirically distinguish the presence or absence of moral goodness.

    Although, in fact, I could accept that there is an empirical difference between moral pleasure and immoral pleasure but still argue that there is no practical difference, much like there is an empirical difference between a red umbrella and a yellow umbrella but no practical difference.

    Why does it matter if my umbrella is red or yellow? Why does it matter if pleasure is moral or immoral?
  • Donald Trump (All General Trump Conversations Here)
    Whoever said it first had an original thought.
  • Why be moral?
    1. Assumption: Ethical non-naturalism
    2. Assumption: Ethical truths affect choices
    3. Assumption (but argued for in this thread): If ethical non-naturalism is true then ethical truths cannot affect choices
    4. Therefore, both (ethical truths affect choices) and not (ethical truths affect choices)
    5. Therefore, ethical non-naturalism is false.
    bert1

    It's not that ethical truths don't affect choices but that ethical truths don't affect the outcome of choices. If I choose to eat meat then the outcome of eating meat is the same whether or not I ought not eat meat.

    Whereas the viability of antibiotics can very much affect the outcome of my choice to take antibiotics when sick.
  • Best Arguments for Physicalism
    Related is Hempel's dilemma:

    On the one hand, we may define the physical as whatever is currently explained by our best physical theories, e.g., quantum mechanics, general relativity. Though many would find this definition unsatisfactory, some would accept that we have at least a general understanding of the physical based on these theories, and can use them to assess what is physical and what is not. And therein lies the rub, as a worked-out explanation of mentality currently lies outside the scope of such theories.

    On the other hand, if we say that some future, "ideal" physics is what is meant, then the claim is rather empty, for we have no idea of what this means. The "ideal" physics may even come to define what we think of as mental as part of the physical world. In effect, physicalism by this second account becomes the circular claim that all phenomena are explicable in terms of physics because physics properly defined is whatever explains all phenomena.

    If Hempel's dichotomy is accurate and if no physicalist believes that our current theories amount to a Theory of Everything then it must be that physicalism is true by definition. But of course that makes physicalism trivially true and not a substantive theory.
  • Why be moral?


    If the good had a practical affect on our lives then the good could, in principle, be determined empirically, but as Moore says:

    We cannot tell what is possible, by way of proof, in favour of one judgment that ‘This or that is good,’ or against another judgment ‘That this or that is bad,’ until we have recognised what the nature of such propositions must always be. In fact, it follows from the meaning of good and bad, that such propositions are all of them, in Kant’s phrase, ‘synthetic’: they all must rest in the end upon some proposition which must be simply accepted or rejected, which cannot be logically deduced from any other proposition.

    We just either accept or reject the proposition that this is bad (and we're just either right or we're wrong). It's not the case that if this is bad then it will affect us this way, otherwise it will affect us that way, and that because it has affected us this way then it must be that this is bad.
  • Why be moral?
    Then you need to revise your definition, because you are deviating from it ('Then "this is immoral" means "one ought not do this"').Leontiskos

    Despite what I said here, I tend to use "ought" and "should" slightly differently. I use "ought" when I intend to assert the existence of an obligation and "should" otherwise, which is why I say "you should brush your teeth" and not "you ought brush your teeth".

    But if you want me to be more explicit then I'm assuming that "this is immoral" means "we have an obligation to not do this". This is somewhat similar to Moore's definition where he states:

    the assertion ‘I am morally bound to perform this action’ is identical with the assertion ‘This action will produce the greatest possible amount of good in the Universe’

    Although whereas I am defining a descriptive claim as a normative claim, he is defining a normative claim as a descriptive claim. That itself, I believe, introduces a problem with the very notion of obligations under Moore, but for the sake of this discussion I'm letting it slide and assuming for the sake of argument that normative obligations are sensible and true.

    It's one thing to refuse to define these things, and quite another to claim that they have no bearing on motivation. Everyone who has an inkling of what 'good' or 'moral' means knows they bear on motivation. If your arguments have led you to a contrary conclusion then you have coined new words that no one is familiar with, and it's no wonder that you are causing a great deal of confusion.Leontiskos

    I know they bear on motivation. I'm asking why they bear on motivation if we're ethical non-naturalists. It's not a given that if (we believe that) we are obligated to behave a certain way then we will behave that way. See the article on moral motivation:

    No realist or objectivist need think that moral properties, or facts about their instantiation, will, when apprehended, be sufficient to motivate all persons regardless of their circumstances, including their cognitive and motivational makeup. And realists certainly need not take the view that Mackie ascribes to Plato, that seeing objective values will ensure that one acts, “overruling any contrary inclination” (Mackie 1977,23). An individual might grasp a moral fact, for example, but suffer from temporary irrationality or weakness of will; she might be free of such temporary defects but possess a more indelible motivational makeup that impedes or defeats the motivating power of moral facts. Any plausible account of moral motivation will, and must, acknowledge these sources of motivational failure; and any plausible analysis of moral properties must allow for them. Even those realists or objectivists who maintain that all rational and motivationally unimpaired persons will be moved by moral facts need not think they will be overridingly indefeasibly motivated. As already noted, regardless of their views with respect to broader metaethical questions, contemporary philosophers do not take any position on the precise strength of moral motivation—with the qualification (alluded to earlier) that they reject, apparently universally, the idea that moral motivation is ordinarily overriding.

    But whereas that article asks about the reasons for motivational "failure" I'm asking about the reasons for motivational "success".

    But you are saying that I ought to make others happy, and that was the point I was at pains to demonstrate.Leontiskos

    I am explicitly telling you right here and right now that I would like it if you were to make people happy but that you do not have an objectively binding moral obligation to make people happy. Nothing about this is a contradiction.

    you moved the goalposts and started talking about obligations.Leontiskos

    From the OP:

    Let us imagine that the concept of categorical/unconditional imperatives/obligations was sensible. Let us also imagine that these are true. What then?

    It's always been about obligations. I just often you the phrase "you ought do this" rather than "you have an obligation to do this" because it's quicker to write.

    And if you want, we can do away with all talk of "good" and "bad", "moral" and "immoral", "right" and "wrong", "ought" and "ought not", "should" and "should not", and just say this:

    1. Whether or not we have an obligation to not eat meat does not affect the outcome of our decision to eat or not eat meat.

    2. Given my recognition of (1), whether or not I have an obligation to not eat meat does not factor into my motivation to eat or not eat meat.

    3. If you recognize (1), and if whether or not you have an obligation to not eat meat does factor into your motivation to eat or not eat meat, then why? Why are you motivated to obey an obligation when the outcome of your decisions is not affected by the "existence" of such an obligation? Is it simply a matter of principle?
  • Why be moral?
    But Moore holds that moral facts do matter because when people do as they ought to, societal good increases.Hanover

    Why does it matter if good increases? It's a non-natural property that has no practical affect on us or our lives. Unlike nutrition.
  • Why be moral?
    You're asking a question Moore doesn't ask.Hanover

    I know. This discussion is intended to show that if theories like Moore's are correct then moral facts don't matter, and so perhaps works as a reductio ad absurdum against such theories. I do not endorse Moore's ethical non-naturalism.

    That is, Moore was a non-naturalist and a consequentialist, which means he cared what the consequence of his behavior was. What made him a non-naturalist was his refusal to provide an essentialist definition of "the good. "

    Per Moore, your motivation not to kill wild animals for food (as you have posited that it is immoral) is that by not killing animals, you will promote more good through time. That means you have a goal and purpose for your behavior, which is to maximize the good.
    Hanover

    And the argument I am making is that this simple, indefinable "good" is of no practical consequence. A world that contains lots of this "good" is empirically indistinguishable from a world without this "good". Whether or not pleasure is good makes no difference to our experience of pleasure. Whether or not suffering is bad makes no difference to our experience of suffering.

    It may be factually the case that pleasure has this non-natural property of goodness and that suffering does not have this property (and perhaps has some non-natural property of badness), but these non-natural properties are inconsequential.

    So why are we motivated to promote the good? Why not just be motivated to promote pleasure? If pleasure happens to be good then this is merely incidental and irrelevant to our considerations.
  • Why be moral?
    but to say that someone should act in a certain way does not necessarily involve obligations.Leontiskos

    My argument in this discussion is specifically related to the supposed existence of obligations. I have often given examples of "should" claims that do not involve obligations, e.g. "you should brush your teeth", that are not the target of my enquiry.

    The existence or non-existence of obligations does not affect the outcome of the decisions we make. The consequences of eating meat are the same whether or not I have an obligation to not eat meat.

    There appear to be no practical benefits to "obeying" an obligation, and no practical detriments to "disobeying" an obligation. So I would like to understand the motivation of those who choose to "obey" obligations (for no other reason than that the obligation exists).

    And when I say that I would like it if you were to make others happy I am not saying (either explicitly or implicitly) that you have an obligation to make people happy.

    That's not to say that I am necessarily averse to any proposition that includes the word "should". As per an edit to my previous comment (that you may have missed):

    Given these propositions:

    1a. She should give me the money if I am to get rich.
    2a. She should not give me the money if she is to avoid being conned.

    Perhaps they are best interpreted as such:

    1b. I will get rich (only?) if she gives me the money
    2b. She will avoid being conned (only?) if she doesn't give me the money

    These seem sensible (and true), but of course are clearly not normative. I can accept 1a) and 2a) if they are to be interpreted as 1b) and 2b).
  • Why be moral?
    What we have are two rationales:

    1. She should give me the money if I am to get rich.
    2. She should not give me the money if she is to avoid being conned.

    When the robber acts to influence Bonita's behavior he is acting on judgment (1). It doesn't matter if he is aware of (2). Knowledge of (2) does not preclude (1).
    Leontiskos

    So what does "should" mean in this context? It certainly doesn't seem to mean that there is an obligation to behave a certain way, as these sentences don't seem to make sense (or at least don't seem true):

    1. She has an obligation to give me the money if I am to get rich.
    2. She has an obligation to not give me the money if she is to avoid being conned.

    Perhaps what you mean is this:

    1. I will get rich (only?) if she gives me the money
    2. She will avoid being conned (only?) if she doesn't give me the money

    These seem sensible (and true), but of course are clearly not normative.
  • Why be moral?
    He might think, "She should not give me the money if she doesn't want to get conned," but does this mean that he cannot simultaneously think that she should give him the money?Leontiskos

    Your very question has introduced two different senses of "should", else it would be a contradiction to claim that she both should and shouldn't give him the money. I'll need you to explain what you mean by this second (and maybe the first?) "should" before I can answer.
  • Why be moral?
    As a very simple real life example, plenty of people who have affairs believe that they shouldn't be having an affair. They believe that what they are doing is wrong. But they do it anyway because it's what they want. Their desires are stronger than their moral convictions.