:up:

I think you're misunderstanding by "extreme forms" here. I don't mean anti-realism, but rather those sorts of "Boltzmann brain" type arguments that conclude that it is more likely, or just as likely, that the world will dissolve at any moment or radically alter its behavior, as to maintain in its reliable form. This implies that science isn't even likely to be predictive or "useful" on any consistent timescale, and I don't see how that doesn't make it a waste of time. — Count Timothy von Icarus

I wouldn't propose radical skepticism, but also it's not a possibility I feel the need to deny. It is, after all, logically possible -- it's just entirely irrelevant to the task at hand.

Generally I treat radical skepticism as a special case rather than a case we generalize from, except for the cases where a philosopher is purposefully arguing for or utilizing it towards some other philosophical question (so, Descartes and Hume are the "good" kind of radical skeptics; The Freshman philosophy student who just heard about the possibility of solipsism isn't -- rather, that's a sort of "right of passage" that all people interested in philosophy bumble over)

Basically I think such arguments are sophomoric, in the literal rather than pejorative sense, and someone would have to present a radical thesis to make it credible, to my mind; i.e. the "default" position isn't radical skepticism, to my mind, and so isn't so worrying. Sure it's logically possible, so are a host of irrelevancies just like it. Where the bite?

IDK, my reading would be that denials of any knowable human good ("moral/practical anti-realism," which is often aided by other forms of anti-realism) have tended to be destructive to politics, applied science, and ethics. That a key concern of contemporary politics, and a constantly recurring motif in our media is that our technology will drive our species extinct or result in some sort of apocalypse or dystopia because it is "out of anyone's control," suggests to me a fundamental problem with the "Baconian mastery of nature" when combined with anti-realism about human ends and the ends of science. If the aim of science is to improve our casual powers, but then we are also driven towards a place where we are largely silent on ends, that seems like a recipe for disaster, the sort of situation where you get things like predictable ecological disasters that will affect generations of future people but which are nonetheless driven on largely by unrestrained and ultimately unfulfilling appetites. — Count Timothy von Icarus

Heh, this is something we're wig-wamming our way about here because it seems we both believe things like "it's a good idea to talk about ethics, especially with respect to what science does" and "Jewish science is a pseudo-science", but we keep on reading these bits of evidence towards our respective views :D

All to be expected, but I want to say that I think it possible to be a skeptic towards scientific realism and realize it's important to direct ethically -- in fact, because there's no Architectonic of Science that one must follow, we are free to modify our practices to fit with our ethical demands.

I think there's a fundamental problem with reducing reality to science, and with prioritizing the mastery of nature in our understanding of what science does. But then this might be something of an aside with respect to underdetermination. (heh, the rhetorical side of me thought: In fact, because underdetermination is true we should see that science's activity is a direct result of our ethical commitments rather than an arche-method of metaphysical knowledge that's value-free.

It's descriptive, but not value-free, if that makes sense. Science is always interested for some reason, even if that reason is "I just think snails are cool and like to study their behavior because they make me feel happy when I'm around them"

Phrenology was discredited because it was thought to be false. But if "true" and "false" are themselves just social endorsements, then truth cannot arbitrate between racist, sexist, etc. scientific theories. So, sure, both forms are open to abuse, but only one can claim that abuse isn't actually abuse, and that all science is about power struggles anyhow. If science is really just about power or usefulness, then there is strictly speaking nothing wrong about declaring sui generis fields like "Jewish physics" just so long as it suits your aims and gets you what you want. — Count Timothy von Icarus

Phrenology was always a pseudo-science. It has all the characteristics -- the theories follow the form of confirmation and don't try to disconfim them. They held some social significance which allowed people to justify their position or actions to others. They were vague and easy to defend in light of evidence.

Now I'll go this far: If underdetermination, as a theory, leads us to be unable to differentiate between science and pseudo-science, and we believe there is such a thing as pseudo-science (I do), then we're in a pickle.

But like you have a theory which takes care of underdetermination, within realist parameters I'd be able to defend our ability to spot pseudo-science on the social model of the sciences -- i.e. it's not just me, but all the scientists that say what science is. "Jewish Science" wasn't even as clear as phrenology; it was definitely a racist category for expelling Jewish scientists from the academy. That it resulted in expelling people who we still consider scientists -- like Bohr -- is an indication that it's not a science even if "Jewish Science" happened to get the aims desired after.

I.e. though underdetermination complicates the question, it's still addressable by my lights without a realist science.

Arguments from underdetermination is extremely influential in contemporary philosophy.

They have led to many radical, and seemingly skeptical theses.

These theses are perhaps more radical than we today recognize, when seen from the perspective of Enlightenment and pre-modern prevailing opinion.

These types of arguments were not unknown in the past, and were indeed often used to produce skeptical arguments.

The tradition most associated with these arguments, ancient Empiricism, sought skepticism on purpose, as a way to attain ataraxia.

Thus, we should not be surprised that borrowing their epistemology leads to skeptical conclusions.

Hence, if we do not like the skeptical conclusions, we should take a look at the epistemic starting points that lead to them.

Indeed, if an epistemology leads to skepticism, that might be a good indication it is inadequate.

The Thomistic response is given as one example of how these arguments used to be put to bed. I use it because I am familiar with it and because the Neoplatonist solution is quite similar. (But the Stoics also had their response, etc.).

I do think that solution is better, but the point isn't to highlight that specific solution, but rather the genealogy of the "problem" and how it arises as a means of elucidating ways it might be resolved or else simply understanding it better. — Count Timothy von Icarus

Ok, fair. It may just not be for me, then -- here I'm saying "but I like the skeptical conclusions", and so the rest kind of just doesn't follow. The motivation isn't there for me.

But you were talking about a lot of the things I think about which is why I replied. I see I missed a good chunk of the essay just because of what grabbed my attention, though.

No, not really. No mention of underdetermintion or realism. You're basically assuming that the OP is about something that it doesn't claim to be about, hence the ad hominem nature. The OP is about underdetermination and realism. That's the core. — Leontiskos

And the medievals are the ones who have a better solution to underdetermination and realism, yes? Is the outline that I gave of @Count Timothy von Icarus 's argument entirely wrong, just unrelated whatsoever?

They acknowledge it, as Tim put it, but don't draw the radical conclusions.

I'm sort of saying "Well, what if the radical conclusions are true, after all? Maybe it's the realist philosophy of science which is wrong, then" -- I'm a realist, but not a scientific realist, exactly. It's too provisional a discipline to draw metaphysical conclusions from, even if we'll want to pay attention to its limited conclusions while thinking about nature.

I would want to actually look at some of these arguments you are alluding to. For example:

1. We don't just see the object as it is
2. We frequently make mistakes
3. We frequently go about looking for reasons to justify our first beliefs
4. We have only a tentative grasp of the whole
5. Therefore, Underdetermination explains why we go through all the hoops we do in making scientific inferences — Leontiskos

Underdetermination is the theory that theories are not determined by the evidence, but rather are chosen in order to organize the evidence, and in some way are a selective pressure on which evidence is relevant to consider.

1-4 are observations of human beings attempting to generate knowledge which fit with this belief -- basically an IBE, or really just a set of reasons for why I think underdetermination is a good default position. I.e. I don't have a deep quandary with denying causation as a metaphysical reality. That's because causation isn't real but how we decide to organize some body of knowledge.

Closer, or does that just read as more of the same to you?

Well, if extreme forms of underdetermination are successful, the scientist is wasting their time. — Count Timothy von Icarus

Hrrrmmm, I don't think so. But fair that I misread you, then -- in part at least. There's still something here that I can see that wasn't conveyed on my part.

Basically my thought is that if anti-realism is true that has no effect on the value of science. It'd be like saying because dancing is not really a thing dancing is not valuable: no, the value question is separate from the descriptive question. If science doesn't "reveal reality", but rather makes us aware of which parts we are interested in manipulating it will still chug along regardless of the philosophical interpretation of the science.

I didn't say they must lead that way, or even that they are designed to. I said that, historically, they absolutely have been used on both the right and the left to push such agendas. And yes, this is normally in a sort of corrupted, naive form, but some propagandists, radicals, and conspiracy theorists have a very good grasp on this stuff and have become quite adept at molding it to their causes. On the left, it's tended to be used more for things like casting doubt on all findings related to sex differences, or often the entire field of behavioral genetics. — Count Timothy von Icarus

Mkay. Then I suppose I'd just say that if it's been used by both sides so has the "realist" side been mis-utilized by the same actors.

All the various phrenologies which basically justify social hierarchy are what I have in mind there, or "race science" or eugenics.

So I'd rather put the bad actors to one side since they'll use either argument that they see fit, but this does not then reflect upon the philosophy if we are treating it properly.

Still thinking on a return to your OP, this is just what leaped out for now.

Likewise, there are a lot of people who bemoan how scientific anti-realism and arguments for science coming down to sociology and power relations has been used to pernicious effect on public debates on vaccine safety, global warming, GMO crops, etc., and are looking for solutions to underdetermination here. — Count Timothy von Icarus

I think this is a mistake to draw these philosophies towards some sort of anti-scientific agenda. At least, not when I speak on them they're not -- more like I'm very interested in the truth of how science actually works, and I don't want the cartoon version but to really understand what's going on (and, in that pursuit, noting how the goal is itself almost infinite, if not fruitless, in that we never really finish philosophizing about science where we finally have The Answer, but it still provides insight)

That is, there are many who see these primarily as problems to be overcome, hence, old solutions should be interesting.

I mean, that's fair. I said above my position is to default "the other way", so it may just be that the article isn't addressed to me. I like digging out old ideas and trying them in new ways -- that's a time honored philosophical practice. I suppose it just doesn't appeal to me is all.

Which part?

Is it enough to say

"Modern philosophy has problems. These medieval thinkers didn't have these problems. This is because modern philosophy invented this problem for itself by stripping out all the thoughts which earlier thinkers relied upon in making such inferences. Therefore, we should adopt these earlier approaches, given the incredible progress knowledge has made -- there is a disconnect between ability, and these supposed modern problems that we can pass over by reading the older solutions" ?

Does that demonstrate having read the OP?

My thinking is with respect to underdetermination and its value -- what I read were some solutions to underdetermination based on a generalization of a few select authors rather than what I might say in favor of underdetermination, for instance. So I wanted some sort of reason why these are even appealing at all?

For myself I don't feel a deep need to argue for underdetermination because to me it explains why we go through all the hoops we do in making scientific inferences -- we don't just see the object as it is, we frequently make mistakes, and go about looking for reasons to justify our first beliefs while discounting possibilities not on the basis of evidence, but because they do not fit. This is inescapable for any productive thought at all -- but it has the result that we only have a tentative grasp of the whole.

Basically we don't need Hume's rendition of causation to point out that underdetermination is part and parcel to scientific practice: hence all the methodological hurdles one must overcome to be justified in saying "this is a scientific conclusion"; if it were something we could conclude without underdetermination then the scientists would be wasting their time, to my view.

Nevertheless, I still think plenty can be said with careful analysis. And note, the topic is not super broad. We can have a quite good idea about how people thought about arithmetic in the past because they both wrote about it in detail and it's not a super broad subject. — Count Timothy von Icarus

Plenty can be, and has been, and ought be said in the future.

I think it's broad in that you're talking about any and all arguments from underdetermination and using the ancients to say they have solutions to the arguments for underdetermination.

Specific when thinking about the pre-moderns, yes -- there's a great dialogue there to engage with, and I think medieval and ancient philosophy ought be given more time. i.e. i favor the historical method -- but that does not then mean that those of a previous era who did not see the modern problems as interesting thereby solved the contemporary problems.

Yes, we can focus on what they were talking about, but if Sartre is who we're interested in then all this remembrance of another philosophy, another tradition which :

I think another ameliorating factor is that there has been an unbroken, and fairly robust/large Thomistic and Neoscholastic tradition dating all the way back to that era. And so, even if we cannot say what the medievals would have thought, we can say what people steeped in their texts have generally thought, and it has generally been that underdetermination, while interesting and relevant in some areas, shouldn't support the radical theses that have been laid on it.

says such a thing, then "radical theses" are what are being pursued. The wondering isn't about what is generally comfortable for thought, but about problems for thought.

Yes, there's a connection through the tradition of Thomism, at least. And, honestly, it's an amazing connection in that it's a line of flight that has managed to develop in spite of the historical contingencies.

It's cool, but if it doesn't address what others are thinking then it's not a panacea. Ultimately I don't see the world as a harmony, for instance -- I think it's absurd.

Your ameliorating factor ameliorates some doubts, but what if I think that Hume, Quine, Wittgenstein, Feyerabend, et al. , have a point? Do I just need to read more Thomas Aquinas to see the errors in my ways?

• David Hume’s argument against causal inferences and explanations, as well as his hugely influential “Problem of Induction;”

• Ludwig Wittgenstein’s rule-following argument, as well as Saul Kripke’s influential reformulation of it;

• W.V.O Quine’s argument for the inscrutability of reference;

• Quine’s holist arguments for the underdetermination of theories by evidence, as well similar arguments for forms of theoretical underdetermination made by J.S. Mill and expounded upon by Pierre Duhem;

• Thomas Kuhn’s arguments about underdetermination at the level of scientific paradigms;

• As well as many others, including Feyerabend’s “epistemological anarchism,” Goodman’s “new riddle of induction,” etc. — Count Timothy von Icarus

I want to nitpick these examples on the basis that they're underdetermined -- or, the flip side of "underdetermination" is confirmation bias. There's some reason for the selection of examples, and that selection of examples may justify what you're saying as "this is where I'm coming from", but how are we to know that these are good examples of underdetermination such that Aquinas or Aristotle or the pre-modern mind had answers to these questions if we just dropped the questions and read Aquinas, Aristotle, and the ancients only?

This is something I thought while reading MacIntyre. Yes, I see what you're saying, but like Heidegger you're sort of inventing a whole mindset that is "pre-modern", and justifying it with many quotes -- but at the end of the day if you haven't spoken to people from the pre-modern era then, my brother in christ, you cannot make claims about how pre-modern people think no matter how many texts you read from that era.

It elucidates how we think, but it may not be the panacea of problems contemporary philosophy faces.

It looks soothing -- but ultimately when someone says that if we go back to some ancient or medieval thinker as the person who saw it all I think that we're kind of fibbing to ourselves.

Perhaps with good purpose, and definitely with good thinking -- but it's more imaginative than the statement reads. We're attempting to reconstruct the thoughts of people we can't talk to, yes. Especially in the history of philosophy -- that we even have a moon-shot chance of doing so is itself amazing. But something I've learned from doing Epicurus studies is that humility is important in approaching anyone pre-Gutenberg. Aquinas may be so well read because it was just before the Gutenberg press rather than because he had the insight into the real nature of things, and he provided a soothing picture of the world as a harmony.

But I'm curious if any of this makes sense to anyone else on its own terms. — Baden

In a rough way, yes. I'm wanting the eating disorder example to be filled out in a general manner which might apply elsewhere -- but that means the idea is interesting.

Yeah, we don't need Sartre -- but in my ignorance at least I prefer Sartre ;)

Not with all that implies**, but the notion of not knowing yourself through immediate self-reflection is something I'd keep -- i.e. what you talk about when saying we only know ourselves through our acts rather than some attachment to being which we can reflect upon, and that, in turn, requires a certain sociality before "the subject" is able to even reflect upon "the subject", in the manner of Sartre's notion of consciousness being that which it is not.

When I think of the difference between Sartre and Heidegger I think of the questions they're posing -- Derrida is probably right that Sartre wasn't Heidegger, but Sartre is still an amazing thinker on his own (and given Sartre's popularity at the time what else is a Derrida to do but look for problems in the thinker? :D)

But the opening of each spells out how different they are, at least by the old translations I read -- one is questioning the ability to articulate the question about the meaning of being and answering it through a phenomenological analysis of language such that he makes claims about "the greek mind" to elucidate how our heritage has, in some sense, lost the original quality of the questions (itself a historical falsehood, but wonderful philosophy as an entirely unique way of thinking)

Sartre is asking, in layman terms, how the seemingly singular subject conscious of itself is able to lie to itself -- and also articulating a theory of consciousness that differs from Husserl in that it is always what it is not (at least, insofar that I understand the differences at all); which is what brings in things like bad faith and an explanation for how an individual consciousness can lie to themself.

__________

On each account I'm fairly skeptical about the ability to spell out abstract notions of consciousness, even in philosophy, that are universal -- but they also seem to capture something of the thinker and the moment better than other attempts at such philosophy, so it always remains very interesting.

I'm just a natural skeptic, what can I say.

**"All that implies" meaning something along the sense that Sartre's subject can be conceived of in the Cartesian manner -- a point-like entity which rather than thinking is deciding, or "acting", and it is always free. I can see that, but I also see a more sympathetic reading which emphasizes the ekstases (the tri-partite divison of time being not-pointlike, but rather constitutive of any consciousness -- a before/during/after that blends together in consciousness)

That helps me a lot in understanding what we've talked about before.

Especially the designation of which names go on which side of "the break" -- Sartre with Hegel/Kierkegaard/James, vs. thems who "understood" Nietzsche (I had to use the scare quotes given the topic) -- that helps me in trying to orient our conversations at least, and so I appreciate it.

Heh, fair.

Obviously, that's not my experience, but also, I don't claim a good understanding of Husserl while recognizing him as the giant that he is. Not enough years of patient reading on my part.

My comparison between B&T and B&N so far is that they're just doing different things, and his interpretations are very much his own interpretations -- but that doesn't mean it's not doing something interesting all on its own.

I'm sympathetic to the notion that Sartre didn't really understand Heidegger, but at the same time that's more because he was also a creative philosopher with a vision which may have attempted to integrate what was into what is, but was also kind of doing his own thing that is, if we take Descartes as a starting point, a very French way of doing things.

Sartre was a philosophical lightweight compared to Husserl, which is why Heidegger called his work ‘dreck’ , — Joshs

Isn't that a bit of an exaggeration, though?

I'm not sure Sartre is a lightweight compared to Husserl, at least (and thereby Heidegger, whom I respect less).

Concerned differently? Mistaken about what his priors were saying? Sure.

Lightweight? Naw.

Yup, that's my intent.

You might say that my re-write is a middlebrow petit-bourgeois deradicalized version. Maybe that describes all of my posts in this group? — Jamal

It could be... though I'm not really too concerned if it is or isn't. In some sense this would be inescapable in the administered state even by Marxist standards. The way he speaks of ideology can only be escaped, I'm guessing, through this negative dialectics, but coming to understand such a thing we can only start with what we are familiar with now which, if we're good Marxists, means that it's going to start with ideology whether we want that to be the case or not.

What I am concerned with is making sure I'm not just fooling myself, though :D -- I want something somewhat coherent to point to if I were to say, "When Adorno says... " blah, mostly because that's how I check myself and learn while reading: I purposefully attempt to restate what I believe I'm reading in my own words, which inevitably are simpler than the philosopher's that I'm reading. It's a good practice.

And given what Adorno said about how language is the only way to objectify thought, and that what is poorly written is poorly thought out, I think it makes a good deal of sense for the student to try and think it out in the manner we're able: we're still trying to figure out this beast negative dialectics, we can't be expected to "think dialectically" before finishing the book!

Alright, this is where we left off last. Because of the pause I reread everything up to Portrayal and it was heartening because it read much faster and more smoothly this time -- which means we're making progress. And I think I've figured out the reason for Portrayal or expression is so important, and different, from the representation. I think I'm reading it like you do here where the representation is the fact itself, whereas the expression of a fact is an interpretation: And how this occurs follows from the previous section on the speculative moment.

I was wondering what he was going on about when talking about how reciting a philosophical text does not make you profound -- there's not a profoundness sitting within The Republic before anyone reads it -- but rather the expression of some text in the proper moment that leads to profundity, or by analogue, the goal that philosophy is aiming at: to express correctly is to move beyond the representation -- beyond the facts as he said in the speculative moment -- and speak freely about this unfree (factual) state of affairs fully dominated by things.

Your explanation of "thingly" helped me wrap my mind around that sentence. The "thingly bad state of affairs" -- a state of affairs dominated by the thing where expression does not exist but merely converges with science is this thingly state of affairs, and it is bad because there is the speculative impulse of philosophy which is being ignored by such an approach (or, perhaps, it's simply too dominating in the world Adorno finds himself in, where people sort of refuse to speculate on the basis of it not being worthy) ((Though I am also finding myself asking after a better explanation for why it is bad -- I feel like I'm doing some handwaiving to make sense of the text rather than referencing something he said))

I'm still reviewing "Portrayal" and intend on finishing "System" today. But there's something of a report (without an answer to your question you posed)

EDIT:

That final paragraph is a doozy.

To think is, already in itself and above all particular content,
negation, resistance against what is imposed on it; this is what thinking
inherited from the relationship of labor to its raw material, its Urimage. If ideology encourages thought more than ever to wax in
positivity, then it slyly registers the fact that precisely this would be
contrary to thinking and that it requires the friendly word of advice
from social authority, in order to accustom it to positivity. The effort
which is implied in the concept of thinking itself, as the counterpart to
the passive intuition, is already negative, the rejection of the

31

overweening demand of bowing to everything immediate. The
judgement and the conclusion, the thought-forms whose critique
thought cannot dispense with either, contain critical sprouts in
themselves; their determination is at most simultaneously the
exclusion of what they have not achieved, and the truth which they wish
to organize, repudiating, though with doubtful justification, what is not
already molded by them. The judgement that something would be so,
is the potential rejection that the relation of its subject and its predicate
would be expressed otherwise than in the judgement. Thought-forms
want to go beyond what is merely extant, “given”. The point which
thinking directs against its material is not solely the domination of
nature turned spiritual. While thinking does violence upon that which
it exerts its syntheses, it follows at the same time a potential which
waits in what it faces, and unconsciously obeys the idea of restituting
to the pieces what it itself has done; in philosophy this unconsciousness
becomes conscious. The hope of reconciliation is conjoined to
irreconcilable thinking, because the resistance of thinking against the
merely existent, the domineering freedom of the subject, also intends
in the object what, through its preparation to the object, was lost to this
latter.

Mostly in the various justifications and explications rather than the thesis of the statement -- that thinking is negative rather than positive. The analogy between worker and "raw material" as the Ur-image makes sense, though. The part that really throws me is the very end: Where thought does violence upon its subject but with the ability to "restitute" what thought has done to its object.

What is this "hope" about? Does the proper expression always hope to reconcile its violence to its object in order to restitute it? Is this what it would mean to reach the non-conceptual?

Mostly thinking out loud about the difficult parts, though I'm tracking well enough to keep reading.

SVO/SOV and inflection, as the main problems I see. :rofl: And so it would seem that the project is severely hampered and severed from the outset. The translated material we are working with is mostly analytic and not dialectical, as it has been mediated through the english language. This poses an additional challenge, as english readers can't be helped by language, the dialectic is neither immanent nor immediate in it. But I guess this is the whole point, mediation, which even in a highly dialectical language such as german, cannot be avoided. As to our own style and presentation, tone or syntax tricks must be employed, at the peril of making one sound like Yoda. Yet another challenge we brought ourselves against, who wouldn't love a challenge anyway, what else is there? — Pussycat

But what if we formalize dialectics into the one Final System.... :D

Yeah, the language barrier is already there -- though I think there's enough similarity between English and German that with a comprehension of both you can give "the idea", if not the strict meaning of a text. I liked the analogy which the translator had of the photo-negative or the depictions of planets that we see on NASA's website and the like: These aren't the images an astronaut looking from down on orbit would see, but they are also not-false, exactly, but bitmap recreations that have a sort of negative relationship to what would be seen. Whatever this negative relationship between say what the astronaut sees and what a picture of the Moon shows I might term "the conceptual" -- that which can be translated, but only through familiarity with the particulars of both and only in this negative way. i.e. there won't be some easy 1-to-1 substitution one can do between German and English such that "the meaning" would be expressed -- if the original is in German then the meaning, as meant, is German meaning, not English meaning. (but, luckily, there's an absurd world to keep us in check from getting lost in meaning)


Anyways, catching up with everyone now. Summers over, schools back in session, and I'm reading again.

Maybe. I'm not opposed to these notions on their face, at least.

The importance of incoherence, contradiction, and falsity preoccupies much of my thoughts.

Also recall that in Superman III, corrupted Superman physically expels Clarke Kent from his body, who then proceeds to strangle him to death along with the de re/de facto distinction. — sime

:D

We can't disagree about everything...? — Banno

Perhaps not, but I will. ;)

Just to see where it goes.

There's a sense in which I wonder if Davidson is comforting after all... at least for me. I tend to see the incoherent, the absurd, the contradictory as more important than the coherent. Mostly because "the coherent" looks overly imaginative to me in comparison to "the real", but an absurdist would say that.

Hrm. Not only fair, but insightful.

Adorno and other Frankfurt School writers complain endlessly about the spirit of positivism, but they are complaining about scientism, not science. — Jamal

Yes, that's how I understand it too.

But whereas Davidson uses charity to reach an understanding between speaker and interpreter, Adorno delights in the uncharitable, in the failure of translation, a difference such that the interpreter can never reach a coherent account of the utterance. And Adorno sees this as worthy. — Banno

"Delights in the uncharitable" is too far a step, as well as "the failure of translation" with regards to their worthiness.

"a difference such that the interpreter can never reach a coherent account of the utterance" is nothing like what I'm getting from Adorno so far, at least.

"utterance" can be read as whatever Adorno wrote, for instance. I think that'd be fair. So we must be able to reach some kind of a coherent account of an utterance, tho it may be dialectical at times (or even wrong).

As regards this topic, I see things differently to you, and we are both English speakers.

We don't need to speak a different language to see things differently. — RussellA

I agree that we don't need to speak a different language to see things differently.

I still think that the distinction mentioned shows how others see things differently from us.

At least to a point that we cannot say something as silly as "English is more extensive than Russian"

And so, for purposes of this discussion on painting and color, I will accept the example of Russian distinctions being different from English ones -- color is something we construct together.

I know it's been a minute since I've updated this thread.

But I've been mulling all the thoughts together and thinking about them. They are rich, and I am thankful for all the interactions. I'm still jumbling through the thoughts and sorting them in order to reply and continue towards an answer to the titular question.

I don't see the sense in a strong Whorfian hypothesis, where language determines a speaker's perception of the world. — RussellA

I think this is a boogeyman -- @Jamal has not claimed a strong Whorfian hypothesis, but noted how Russians speak of blue differently from English speakers.

And I said how, with respect to this topic at least, this is enough to say they see things differently.

To answer:

Could you say again what point you feel I have missed about the effect of language on perception. — RussellA

Works well enough. You have a list of colors that Russians listed, but not an answer to why they distinguish different blues as something other than "blue" -- as @frank noted, "pink" is a good analogue here.

By "singular way" I only meant that although art is an end in itself, nevertheless knowing this does not enable us to distinguish art from other things that are also ends in themselves (e.g. pleasure, friendship, etc.). — Leontiskos

Okay. Then, yes, we're in agreement.

Are you saying that we want to be able to say what art isn't? — Leontiskos

Naw. I was catching up on my replies and that's what I thought of.

Art has one intention, to be appreciated for itself. Sex has one intention, pleasure — hypericin

I ought not to have mentioned sex as an analogue now, I think. Two contentious topics can't clarify one another when they're both contentious.


My thinking in the comparison was to point to art has more than one intention -- it gets along with various "uses" and all that.

Sex is the same at least in the way that sometimes people do it for fun, and sometimes people do it for fun and kids. Two different intentions.

I am curious what you think about my thoughts in the OP regarding the difference between painting and drawing? Where do you agree and disagree? Do you see much of a difference? — I like sushi

I feel overwhelmed at the amount of responses, and flattered. I've been reading along with everyone else, but would you mind re-expressing the thoughts?

It may be worth pointing out that recognizing that art is an end in itself does answer this current question of "use", but it does not provide the essence of art. After all, plenty of other things are ends in themselves, such as for example pleasure and friendship. By learning that aesthetic appreciation is not a means to an end, we have a better understanding of the phenomenon, but we have nevertheless not honed in on it in a truly singular way. — Leontiskos

I'm tempted to say a "double" way -- at least if negation is allowed.

Still, if people agree that art is an end unto itself that's progress. Something aside from "use".

@RussellA, tho replying to @Jamal as a fellow in conversation whose saying things I agree with.

Well, you have two detractors of a sort. I've appreciated your creative efforts in proposing formalisms, but I think you've missed the point a few times now about the effect of language on perception, and even missed the point that I don't care if there's some difference between concepts/language with respect to this topic -- That Russians distinguish such and such means they see something different from us.

Perhaps their language is more extensive than English?

The point he's leading to is that the perception and appreciation of art are not separate, that art is meaningful all the way down. — Jamal

Yeah, I think that follows -- it need not be explicit or clear, which I imagine is usual, but I can't think of any other way we can distinguish a painting from simply painting a wall some color because that's the color walls are (off-white).

Frescos might be a better example there -- surely there's a difference between the wall before the Fresco and after the Fresco, and we see the artistic difference even though the picture on the wall is not a painting on the wall hanging in a frame, but a Fresco (a kind of painting).

What the eye does with light of varying wavelengths and intensities is none of our business—unless we're doing physiology or optics.

Yes, that's the gist of what I'm trying to get at with the idea of an aesthetic attitude -- looking at an artobject is to look at it as something aside from its presence, and aside from whatever role it may play within our own equipmentality. Something along those lines.

It seems that the Russians don't have one word for blue but have one word for pale blue голубой and one word for dark blue Синий. However, in English, we also have two distinct words, ultramarine for dark blue and cerulean for pale blue.

It seems that English is more extensive than Russian in that we also have a word for "blue", which the Russians don't seem to. — RussellA

Sorry, but I think that's a stretch in relation to the other explanation that our upbringing, which includes the language we speak, will influence our perceptions and conceptualizations thereof rather than judging one language-group as having "more extensiveness", whatever that might mean, from the perspective of some pre-linguistic conceptual perception.

I’m not keen on formalism. — Tom Storm

I like formalisms not for the traditional reason (somehow describing a universal experience due to our cognitive structures), but because they are ways of explicitly differentiating traditions. Though I think one must be careful not to confuse the formalism with what's being formalized -- which is to say that there are going to be counter-examples to any given formalism; in the manner of family resemblances, rather than universal conditions of beauty, this is not a fatal flaw, though. It's to be expected.

But this view of formalism is definitely different. In some ways I just mean it as "strict and clear attempted articulations of a tradition within the form of or towards the universal"; the attempt is usually for something others can see as something, if not necessarily beautiful at least not boring.

Kant's pure intuitions of time and space and pure concepts of understanding (the Categories) are not linguistic. The article is about linguistic discrimination. — RussellA

Ehhhh... yes, but no. But more importantly I'd say I'm persuaded to treat linguistic expression of the form "A is B" as a possible candidate for categorical language. It's one of the uses of the copula.

For purposes of this discussion it's fine to equate linguistic discrimination, like the Russian use of blue, with categories of distinction. At least I find it persuasive and any distinction which rests upon a difference between language/concept which rules out the study seems like special pleading.

Isn't it interesting that they have two distinct words for what we'd call "the same"?

That "the same" indicates some kind of categorization going on. Somehow these are related to us -- one is merely a relationship to another of the same underlying "blue". So they are "the same" -- that's the categorical use of "is"

And actually I think get gets along with my viewpoint so I'm rather inclined to accept it over a distinction between concepts and language.

I flatter myself that I'm getting a good feel for it. But maybe the best way to understand how to apply it or use it is to read Minima Moralia and Dialectic of Enlightenment, as well as the “Models” section of ND.

As for who could be said to have done ND after Adorno, the closest I think would be Fredric Jameson and Zizek, though the latter is far from explicitly Adornian. — Jamal

In relation to my ability now I'd say your flattery is warranted. I'm still looking to your reading for guidance through this.

I feel like I might want to read his Aesthetic Theory after ND. Since it was written after ND, it might actually be a conscious application, whereas MM and DoE are negative dialectics in action before Adorno had formally theorized it. And since the art and aesthetic angle is so important in ND, Aesthetic Theory seems like it might be ideal.

Until now I've been a bit put off by what I expect to be his exclusive avant garde and modernist preoccupations—where Adorno goes for Schoenberg and Berg, I go for Stravinsky and Messiaen, not to mention the dreaded jazz—but I've seen enough interesting quotations from AT recently to catch my attention. — Jamal

Well, you know I like aesthetics :D

Also, thanks for the heads up on where to go for that line of thought.

Woke-gang crap doesn't fly in corporate settings. A group of disgruntled employees trying to bully the boss are likely to find themselves on the sidewalk without jobs, and persona non grata. — BC

:(

I, for one, would rather it worked and didn't result in homelessness.

Because who practiced negative dialectics, who did put emphasis on style and content as critique, who gestured towards the non-identical, who did all this, in all, who played the game? Nay, Adorno stands alone. — Pussycat

At the moment, sure.

I think what'd be interesting through this reading group is to understand "Negative Dialectics" well enough that we could carry on in that capacity -- at least as well as we are able to understand it (and perhaps others have done so as well, but here we are talking about it). ((And really I'd be fine if we simply have a collective understanding of a complicated text -- use be damned))

I'm attracted to Adorno so far. It feels familiar and challenging at the same time. I want to understand how to do "Negative Dialectics" for topics other than negative dialectics itself. It looks like a promising avenue to pursue for lots of my interests (which, to be honest, means that in the long run I'll find something wrong....)

Mass shootings aren't a real problem. Well, not compared to all the other shootings. If you wave a magic wand and end all mass shootings in the US once and for all, you will hardly make a dent in the gun death statistics. — SophistiCat

Sure.

But the "magic wand" I'm pointing to is abolishing the 2nd amendment, which would take care of those other things if it were done in accord with the Australian model.

"Mass shootings" are what persuaded me, however -- not that just because people could, but would continue to perpetrate such madness is what persuaded me that it's worth giving up a right to weapons like firearms, at least as we do it in the states.

M'kay. So the reason conceptual art is not-art is because it lacks the essential characteristics of moving the subject?

"We have sex because it feels good. We do art because we like it." In what sense is this supposed to be philosophy?

We have sex for all sorts of reasons beyond "feeling good", such as, to strengthen bonding with a partner, to affirm a claim upon a partner, for social status, to explore sexual identity, because it is socially normative to do so. But most crucially, you speak of the drive to reproduce as if it somehow stood outside of the way sex feels good, and the way we feel impelled to have sex? When in truth, these are two facets of the exact same phenomenon? — hypericin

They may be two facets of the exact same phenomenon -- granting that what I want to focus upon is the non-purposive, the "useless", the "reason why something is attractive" beyond merely "feeling good" or "it serves reproductive functioning"

Mostly because I think those aren't the only reasons why art is attractive, or why we can see a painting as a painting: it's not just that the painting feels good, it's good for this or that reason.

EDIT: Or even bad for this or that reason, but still a painting for all that.

A project supervisor holds an Armalite rifle during the 1996 Australian gun buyback. — Wayfarer

Australia's success in buying back firearms is a large part of what convinced me that it's possible to do within a liberal democracy.

I could be wrong, but while "Abolish the 2nd Amendment" would not sound popular it's basically what would need to happen. The fancy arguments about "A well regulated militia" don't mean anything when we've decided the private ownership of firearms is what's up, especially in a conservative supreme court.

Roe v. Wade was overturned thru a sway in the court because it was a court decision, but an amendment takes something else and is almost impossible. (almost like the document was written to force people to not be able to accomplish things collectively)