• Perception
    @Michael

    So when the blind dream are they seeing? They are obviously interacting with percepts, and you think percepts are seeing, so apparently the blind are seeing when they sleep.

    Sleeping pills are not a cure for blindness.Leontiskos
  • Perception
    I'm not confusing myself because I haven't claim that "hearing voices" isn't a euphemism for "hallucinate".Michael

    You've claimed that the "hears" in "hears voices" is just like the "hears" in ordinary predications about hearing, which is false, because "hears voices" is a euphemism for hallucination.
  • Perception
    No one is arguing brains can hear without input of any sort. The argument is that no can hear without a brain.Hanover

    But who is arguing that persons can hear without brains?
  • Perception
    It's not equivocation to say that the schizoprenic hears voices. That's just the ordinary way of describing the phenomenon.Michael

    No, "hears voices" is a euphemism for "hallucinates." You are confusing yourself.
  • Perception
    What distinguishes the dream with the electrode example is the claim "there is a chair" does not correspond with reality in the dream, but it does with the electrode.Hanover

    Does the "electrode" result in sight or a hallucination? (And why is this question important?)
  • Perception
    Why does that matter? It is still normal to describe someone with a cochlear implant as hearing things, and the same for those with an auditory brainstem implant.

    If you only want to use the words “see” and “hear” for those with normally functioning sense organs then you do you, but it’s not wrong for the rest of us to be more inclusive with such language.
    Michael

    Of everyone with a brain, there are some blind and deaf people who can be helped by aids to sight or hearing, and others who cannot. To understand the difference between the two is to understand why sight and hearing are not reducible to the brain. If they were reducible to the brain then everyone with a brain would be able to see and hear, and everyone who is blind or deaf would be helped by brain-based aids.
  • Perception
    That's also false. The blind can't see anything no matter what their brains are doing.jkop

    Yep. :up:

    It's odd that we even have to have these sorts of conversations.
  • Perception
    The blind can see if their brains are directly stimulated.Hanover

    This is equivocation on "seeing." For example, a blind person does not see when they dream, as your verbiage would have it. Sleeping pills are not a cure for blindness.

    This is due to the uncontroversial scientific fact that perception is created by the brain regardless of whether the stimulus enters the brain through the normal means of sensory organs or whether it is hot wired directly through a probe.Hanover

    This is an equivocation on "created." There is a lot of equivocation going on between you and Michael.

    In sight the brain processes external signals, it does not create images. In that case the images require both the brain and the external stimulus. In hallucination the brain does create images, for in that case the images require no external stimulus. Your whole facade requires equivocation between these two very different cases. If there were no difference between seeing the wolf and hallucinating the wolf, then you would be right. In that case we would not even have two different words, "seeing" and "hallucinating."
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    I point to sources that support what you claim I made up.Fooloso4

    Then do it. Defend either of those two claims. :roll:

    "To break the law is blasphemy." This is the sort of nonsense that most 10 year-old Christians or Jews could correct. To see someone with such ignorance speak with such confidence is remarkable.

    If you were arguing in good faith you would admit that.Fooloso4

    The irony. :lol:
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    psychiatrists by comparison are more in the way of witch doctorstim wood

    They are the priestly caste, and the priestly caste is always taken seriously both by others and by themselves, in part because their function within society is seen to be so important. And of course it cannot be denied that it is important.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    To break the Law is blasphemy.Fooloso4

    Fourth, related to the others, is the claim to be the Messiah. The Messiah is divine but is not God.Fooloso4

    Feel free to defend either of these two claims. The second claim is more truly <It was considered blasphemy to claim to be the messiah>.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - You are making things up left and right, and I see no reason to reply to such bizarre and unsubstantiated ideas.
  • Do (A implies B) and (A implies notB) contradict each other?
    - Yes, I very much like the way you set this out. A contradictory word and a contradictory intention/meaning are two different things, and a capable thinker must be able to recognize when words and meanings separate.
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    Psychiatric treatment is model or theory based, which may not work for a particular patient, and may even be just plain wrong for a particular patienttim wood

    Sure, but this is throwing out the baby with the bathwater. Psychiatry could be the Devil himself, but even so the whole system would collapse without it. So we'll need to keep the devil around until we can figure out how to do without him. Cutting off his head will only make things worse.

    You may not like the psychiatric approach to mental illness, but what alternative would you propose?Leontiskos

    it seems to me the best treatment is holistic in approach, providing what is needed: drugs if needed; counseling/therapeutic/custodial support as needed, and likely a mix.tim wood

    Okay, so you think psychiatry is too narrow of an intervention. I don't find that controversial, but I'm not sure we want the thread to devolve into an argument over psychiatry. The larger picture must be kept in mind, which is abductive. Churchill's saying about democracy could be adapted for psychiatry. If one wants to oppose psychiatry then the true task is to offer a better alternative, not to just bash psychiatry.
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    - What exactly are you disputing? This?:

    There is definitely something wrong, that's not in dispute.unenlightened

    Mental illness is surely a problem, no? And how do we approach it? Psychologically, sociologically, medicinally...? You may not like the psychiatric approach to mental illness, but what alternative would you propose? Do you at least admit that mental illness represents a societal problem?
  • Uploading images, documents, videos, etc.
    Is there a way to delete private messages?Leontiskos

    Outlander answered this for me privately. My Stylebot settings were hiding the option. :blush:
  • The Problem of 'Free Will' and the Brain: Can We Change Our Own Thoughts and Behaviour?
    I figure Spinoza made short work of this. We deliberate between choices as means to achieve our ends. Whatever is making it possible for this to happen is not a copy of our nature.

    If the agency we experience gives us no conception of what is happening, presuming a 'determinism' is not an argument against the reality of deliberation.
    Paine

    Yes, and I find the roots of this in Aristotle as well. Whereabouts in Spinoza could this be found?
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    It's a hypothetical example - nuance is to be avoided in making the distinction between the personal psychological analysis and the social relations analysis.unenlightened

    I suppose my point is that social approaches to mental health need not be conspiracy theories. Describing social theories with the example of, "worldwide recession engineered by financial interests he has zero knowledge of," and the need of "a new government," makes it sound a lot like a conspiracy theory.

    There is a lot going on in the OP. Probably too much. The social aspect is part of it, but not an especially large part.
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    The social diagnosis is that he is suffering from a worldwide recession engineered by financial interests he has zero knowledge of, and what he needs is a new government.unenlightened

    Founders of that tradition such as Alfred Adler would have a more nuanced take.

    I think many people recognize that mental health cannot merely be reduced to a medical issue or a social issue or a psychological issue, etc. Nevertheless, paradigms for treatment remain necessary.
  • A quote from Tarskian
    Why do you assume that a natural leader with no people to lead and a slave without a master to serve will inevitably live in isolation. Why cannot they live in society?Ludwig V

    You asked about slaves without masters and masters without slaves. If a master is not isolated from slaves then he is not without slaves, and vice versa.

    I'm finding this very confusing. I think this would all have been a lot clearer if we could just drop the bit about slavery and talk about leaders and followers.Ludwig V

    Isn't it just that "slave" and "servant" have become dirty words? But they were not dirty for Aristotle ("doúlos").

    I'm all for classlessness. But there's nothing wrong with distinguishing between classes of people when the criterion of membership is relevant.Ludwig V

    Does not the substantive question come down to whether a distinction is relevant or real? When Aristotle argues for natural slavery he is arguing that the distinction between natural slaves and natural masters is both real and relevant. When someone opposes him they are arguing that such a distinction is either not real or not relevant. We could say that those who favor "universal equality" are those who see fewer real and relevant distinctions between humans.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - Probably the most basic evidence for Jesus' claim to divinity is the fact that the Jewish authorities arranged to have him executed for blasphemy.* Someone who does not understand the Jewish context of the New Testament should presumably start there.

    * For example, Mark 14:64
  • Uploading images, documents, videos, etc.
    A lack of disk capacity caused the site to crash recently, so I've had to remove the ability to upload files, which was a privilege for subscribers. I'm not sure if I'll make this permanent — I would prefer not to upgrade to the next plan, which would give us more space for uploads...Jamal

    Two quick questions.

    1. Is there a way to delete private messages? If there is, then encouraging people to delete their obsolete PMs would free up some space, even going forward.

    2. Would a new hosting service solve this problem, or would TPF still be pushing the space limit at places like Communiteq, given comparable hosting plans?
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I'm glad to hear you're reading Kimhi -- not for the faint of heart! In fact you may find parts of it easier going than I did, due to your background in Aristotle.J

    A lot of it is on point for me, even though he is going deeper than I have seen others go. It is also bringing together a number of disparate interests of mine, which is great.

    It may come down to the difference between 'not-X' (negation as an operation within a proposition) and 'It is not the case that (p)' (denial of a proposition)J

    I think that's right, but I think it can be elaborated further.

    What Kimhi adds to this, in a manner I'm still grappling with, is the unity part: the claim that "the assertion 'p is true' is the same as 'I truly think p'." In general, the role of an act of consciousness in Kimhi's philosophy is what allows him to take a thoroughly monist stance on these matters, but as I've said before, I think he could have done a much clearer job explaining it.J

    Yes, but in his defense I think it is very hard to elucidate the manner in which the intellect knows truly, and how truth is both psychological and ontological. This is also related to the table that the ND reviewer gives, which would also be a good jumping off point:



    Reveal
    [math]\begin{array} {|c|c|}\hline A\,believes\,p. & A\,believes\,p. & A\,believes\,p. \\ \hline p. & Not-p. & A's\,belief\,is\,correct. \\ \hline So\,A's\,belief\,is\,incorrect. & So\,A's\,belief\,is\,correct. & So\,\,p. \\ \hline  \end{array}[/math]
    


    I didn't participate in the thread you refer us to, and I'm not prepared right now to try to take it all in.J

    I wouldn't really recommend reading it, but it is an interesting test case of what would happen if we ignore Kimhi's points, such as the point that (b∧¬b) is not a genuine proposition. In large part that thread is just people assuming that it is a genuine proposition, and also some devoted Fregeans being adamant about this. Obviously that assumption leads to problems at every turn.

    One of those "disparate interests" that Kimhi brings together is the strange situation I find myself in on TPF, where there are some who have become very proficient at the manipulation of logical symbols—which they are quick to lord over others—and yet they seem to have no idea of the purpose of logic. For example, the problem with viewing (b∧¬b) as a proposition is that it does not fit with the final cause of logic, and these people have no understanding of the question, "What is the final cause of logic?" They have no reference point outside the internal machine of logic.

    Kimhi talks about this:

    A similar point can be made with respect to Frege’s use of semantic notions such as “the sense of . . .” and “the reference of . . . ,” namely, insofar as we come to see them as pointing to similarities and differences displayed by the notation, we recognize that they are not predicates, since all predicates are expressible using the notation; hence we come to see them as mere means deployed to communicate the use of the notation to a learner. In the end, the success of this communication requires this realization. One can say, therefore, that Frege’s universalist conception is eliminativist with respect to both semantical and formal-categorical discourse. Note that the very construction of the Begriffsschrift is not in any obvious way internal to the fact-stating discourse, namely, we cannot describe it as the actualization of the capacity of linguistic self-consciousness which is internal to the activity of assertion as such. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 91-2

    Picking on Banno again, a stark example of this sort of thing can be seen in a thread trying to figure out what logic even is:

    . . .You are appealing to usage, but the etymology and the historical usage point very clearly to logic as an art of reasoning.

    They say that one of the best ways to learn something is to teach it. A few weeks ago I looked at your thread which is intended to teach propositional calculus (link). It's no coincidence that in your third substantial post you were already into truth tables. But even in your first substantial post you said, "What we want to do is to examine the relations between these propositions, rather than their contents." It seems to me that it would have been more apt to say that we want to examine the relations that obtain between these propositions based on their content. Relations hold or fail to hold in light of the content of the relata, and this has everything to do with truth.

    Now a pedagogue might choose to introduce the rules of logic before introducing the purpose of logic, much like you could teach a child to kick a ball before introducing them to the game of soccer. Of course I am not convinced that this is sound pedagogy.
    Leontiskos

    The posts I was responding to are defending what would be labeled by Kimhi "the modern schematic conception of logic" (pp. 89-90). It is fascinating to me that Banno would teach logic without starting by telling his pupil what logic is for. When is the pupil ever to learn what the tool of logic is used for? Or the teacher? This is something like the epitome of a functionalist approach which attempts to prescind from all ontological questions.

    Thus one reason I am interested to read Kimhi is to understand what pitfalls Frege was attempting to avoid in constructing a system that has led to such oddities ("psycho-logicism").
  • Do (A implies B) and (A implies notB) contradict each other?
    In 's thread on Irad Kimhi some of the same issues that were present in this thread are coming up again. For example:

    Hence, for example, understanding p as an expression of consciousness depends on understanding the use of p in negation. As such, from this point of view we come to see that no conscious act is displayed or specified by the proposition of the form (p and ~p) and therefore no judgment or assertion is displayed by ~(p and ~p). This means that ~(p and ~p) and (p and ~p) are not genuine propositions. Understanding OPNC [ontological principle of non-contradiction] consists in seeing that the repetition of p in these logical contexts is self-cancelling. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 31

    This thread quickly turned into a discussion of (a→(b∧¬b)), and a few of us raised the question of whether (b∧¬b) is a "genuine proposition," to use Kimhi's language. First was Count Timothy:

    Can anyone think up a real world example where you would point out that A implies both B and not-BCount Timothy von Icarus

    Then I argued <here>, that (b∧¬b) is not ontologically possible. Following Kimhi I would say that it is also not psychologically possible. The truth-functionalists trying to stick to their guns could only make sense of (b∧¬b) as FALSE (or falsum, which is the same thing). As I pointed out multiple times, false is different from contradictory/absurd/impossible. And as I also argued multiple times, sentences containing (b∧¬b) are not well-formed in the specific sense I laid out. In Kimhi's language (b∧¬b) is not a genuine proposition. It will not do to say, "Ah, Kimhi doesn't understand Fregean logic." The point is that if Fregean logic thinks (b∧¬b) is a genuine proposition, so much the worse for Fregean logic.

    But I would say that even in propositional logic things like (b∧¬b) are never part of the object language (and again, RAA ferrets them out). They only represent a sort of second-order psychological act, and they can only be asserted by those who do not understand that they are asserting a contradiction. But when someone contradicts themselves, the sense of what is asserted is crucially different from the sense of what is objected to, for the person asserting does not recognize the contradiction within their claim.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    “From the monist point of view, a simple propositional sign displays a possible act of consciousness.” -- the possibility of affirmation or negation.J

    Reading more of Kimhi's book, I am appreciating it, especially the way he explodes the Fregean paradigm over and over. I think Kimhi could help clear up the truth-functional confusions overflowing in <this thread>, which are all essentially based on the Fregean form-substitutability between (A & ¬B) and (B & ¬B).

    But another overlap between the child thread and Kimhi is as follows:

    In English we can deny in a manner that does not affirm the negation of any proposition, and this violates the way that propositional logic conceives of the LEM. In fact, going back to flannel’s thread, this shows that a contradiction in English need not take the form (A ^ ~A). In English one can contradict or deny A without affirming ~A.Leontiskos

    (Propositional logic seems to assume, prima facie, not only the commonsensical idea that C is neither A nor B, but also the deeply counterintuitive idea that C is neither ¬A nor ¬B. Usually if C is neither A nor B then it must be both ¬A and ¬B.)Leontiskos

    Compare Kimhi:

    [For the non-Fregean] The truth-connector is therefore seen as an expression of an operation. In fact, we can speak of truth and falsity operations, which are performed by . . . is true and . . . is false respectively. The assertion “p is true” is the same as “I truly think p.” There is no logical gap between these assertions. By contrast, the assertion “p is false” is not the same as “I truly think not-p.” Thus, truth and falsity operations are not symmetrical. However, they both apply to p and “A thinks p.” It is only in judgments about others that the use of . . . is false is required in addition to negation. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 93

    I would want to say that calling something false is to deny, not to negate, and that the asymmetry of affirmation and denial is well represented by Kimhi's final sentence here. Denial requires an interlocutor in a way that affirmation does not (and this interlocutor could also be merely represented). The corollary here seems to be that saying "p is false" is not the same as saying "not-p".

    At this point I would want to see denial and negation as distinguished according to what Kimhi says on 87 about Aristotle, where denial is an assertion "away from" and a negation is a "separation." But I would have to look into this more, and I know Kimhi will go on to speak about whether and in what way these are truly distinct.

    (I also really like Kimhi's work in unifying the various formulations of the PNC, a point that I have often found difficult to convey to those whose paradigm precludes it.)
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I’ve been working with some ideas in Irad Kimhi’s Thinking and Being. Much of what he talks about concerns the nature of the relationship between predication and truth-assertion. It occurred to me that “Existence is not a predicate” has some obvious parallels with “Truth is not a predication.” That is, neither existence nor truth add anything, conceptually, to what they appear to be predicating ‛existence’ and ‛truth’ of. I can say “A hundred thalers exist” but this adds nothing to the concept ‛a hundred thalers’; I can say “It is true that there are a hundred thalers on the table” but this adds nothing to the proposition ‛There are a hundred thalers on the table’.J

    Before looking at affirmation and negation I want to revisit this part of the OP now that I have a better understanding of the context.

    Colloquially, I want to say that both predications of truth and existence add something to the thing they are predicated of, for this thing is thought to be truth apt or existence apt. By thinking of such predicables as "apt" they are thought of as logically pre-true or pre-existing. This way of thinking seems to be what we now consider normal. Of course, it is possible to affirm such predications without the words "true" or "exists."

    Regarding the idea that existence is not a predicate, I think this is tied to standard compositional syllogistic. It would seem that judgments of existence are atomic in a way that is foreign to the combining and separating that constitutes logical acts, and therefore questions of existence are considered pre-logical (including being prior to logical predication). Formal logic is only concerned with existence qua logical function, as for example is seen by the existential quantifier. Existence, then, is treated as a kind of meta-predicate which is barred from being taken into per se consideration within the object language, given the way that it is not (logically) manipulable.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    From the Notre Dame review of Irad Khimi's Thinking and BeingRussellA

    Informative review. :up:
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    Again, what you have written shows multiple errors in your understanding of formal logic.Banno

    I see you are back to your schtick of non-responses. I will take this as a concession, and move on with the topic of the thread.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I'm sorry you can't see how it answers the OP. It is at least a beginning.Banno

    Okay, I grant that it is a beginning. My point is that formal considerations cannot answer the OP. "There are no true sentences that are not about some thing," is not a formal consideration. It is at best a presupposition of formal logics, not a conclusion. And whether every true sentence in a formal language is about existing things is a contentious topic.

    Existence, at least as qualification, ranges over individuals, while truth ranges over propositions. The OP asks about the relation between existence and truth.Banno

    As you pointed out:

    So generally, existence is not a first order predicate; nor is truth.Banno

    Again, the concepts of existence and truth are presuppositions of formal logic, not things that formal logic handles as first-order predicates. If we are considering and comparing the presuppositions of formal logic, then we have already taken a step beyond the object language.

    I might reply, in kind, that all (true) sentences can be parsed into propositional logic. "p". Therefore all true sentences are "formulable within formalism".Banno

    Even if they could, we know from Godel that not all true sentences can be shown true in propositional logic. By limiting ourselves to a formal context we limit our access to truth.

    Claiming that there is no explicit predication of existence or truth in formal logic is ignorant.Banno

    Claiming that the existential quantifier is equivalent to predicating existence is ignorant, and you know this. Your first post hedged on this sort of thing.

    This post will just rattle your cage. That is probably all that can be done until J can formulate a more explicit topic.Banno

    The topic is fine. The problem is your approach which sees everything as a nail, because your only tool is a hammer. If you want a thread on the internal workings of formal logic, maybe you are the one who needs to make a new thread. The idea that all questions can be answered by formal logic is daft, and provably false. It's high time you stopped pigeonholing every thread into your naive paradigm.

    -

    Logical systems are meant to capture correct human reasoning, and although each system fails in certain unique ways, all formal systems fail insofar as they are static and because of this lack recursion or reflexivity. One of the most unique properties of the human mind is its ability to think about its own thoughts, with a kind of infinite reflexivity. Formalized systems lack this "self-knowledge," so to speak. Godel used this fact to prove his incompleteness theorem, but it goes deeper than that. Thinkers who turn their gaze on truth qua truth or being qua being (as opposed to truth qua consistency or being qua stipulation) are using the muscle of the human mind that allows this infinite reflexivity. Trying to do such work while limiting oneself to a static formal system is to presume that the static system can demonstrate true statements about itself in this reflexive manner, and this presumption always turns out to be false. The static system will only ever arrive at faux truth and faux being, for the simplifications that are part and parcel of static systems preclude one from thinking about truth in itself or being in itself.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - What I find in the U.S. is that Protestantism tends to be narrow minded, and those that reject this tradition desire to be broad minded, in much the way that a compressed spring reacts against its compression. This would help explain the reactionary attitude among ex-Protestants towards a kind of broad mindedness, even where no rational justifications are present. I've seen in this thread a fair amount of resentment towards any "narrowed" conception of Christianity, in one case even unto the remarkably unjustified conclusion that anyone who is not hateful is therefore somehow Christian. I grant that there are many people who are resentful towards narrow or exclusivist forms of Christianity, but I do not grant that this has anything to do with rigorous philosophical thinking. Along similar lines, many of the ways that strong inclusivity has crept into Christian theology can be directly traced to parents who had a vested interest in the idea that their children who left the faith did not in fact leave the faith. This was, for example, the motivational context for Rahner's "anonymous Christians."

    I don't know where you fall in any of this, but in general you tend to be a more precise thinker who does not carve out a position based on emotional reaction, so I do not assume that this trend would apply.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    This is simply not true. This is why I pointed to the use of the term son in the Hebrew Bible. It is used many times both in the singular and plural. It often refers to kings and rulers and never means a god.Fooloso4

    Have you now reduced a historical question to an exegetical question? The number of ex-Protestants in this thread is not coincidental.

    The disciples, Paul, and other Jewish followers did not believe that Jesus was a god.Fooloso4

    Of course he did. Paul incorporates Jesus into the Hebrew Shema in places like 1 Corinthians 8:4-6. He says that Jesus bears the image of God in 2 Corinthians 4, and the name of God in Philippians 2.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    This is the topic at hand, and it is addressed to christians.unenlightened

    And your statement seems to have nothing at all to do with it. So again I ask, What does this have to do with the topic at hand?
  • How to Justify Self-Defense?
    It includes the question of whether certain assumptions should be regarded as true.Fooloso4

    And the one who actually reads the OP notices sentences like this one:

    It seems to me that the only way to justify self-defense is to either (1) abandon stipulation #1 or (2) reject #3.Bob Ross

    The one with a predetermined interpretation has to ignore sentences like that one.
  • How to Justify Self-Defense?
    There is a difference between deliberating and rule following.Fooloso4

    The one who is engaged in the attempt to formulate and justify rules is not engaged in mere rule-following. This false charge is common.

    It is not a matter of inquiring into the rationale for justified self-defense but, as the OP makes clear, of self-defense under the constriction of certain stipulated moral principles.Fooloso4

    No, it is an inquiry into whether a justification for self-defense is consistent with certain axioms.
  • A quote from Tarskian
    You are right, Aristotle's slavery is not a sufficient condition of forcible enslavement.Ludwig V

    Good, we are in agreement on this.

    I left with just two questions. How do natural slaves who have no master live? How do natural rulers who have no people to rule live?Ludwig V

    I think Aristotle's answer to both would be, "Poorly." If humans are social animals, then flourishing will require society, and where society is lacking flourishing is lacking. A master or slave in isolation would be like a part disconnected from the whole, and in both cases the lack of cooperation or communion will make their lives worse than what they otherwise would be.

    Does the master not require the slave to flourish? Mutual dependency, common good. Positively inspiring!Ludwig V

    Yes, the master does require the slave to flourish.

    Perhaps. He may well not be. He probably doesn't have the time, what with running the whole show.Ludwig V

    Sure, but he is capable in a way that the slave is not. There may be some curious exceptions of masters who cannot function as slaves, such as Stephen Hawking, whose body was not capable of manual labor.

    I understand that some people think that Aristotle's argument demonstrates that universal human equality is nonsense. It is indeed nonsense if it means that everyone is the same. But Aristotle's argument demonstrates what it does mean. For the motivating assumption of the argument is that everyone should be treated in the way that is appropriate to them. Irrelevant circumstances (such as Hecuba's birth - Simpson p. 12) should not come into play. The only issue is what is appropriate to who.Ludwig V

    Yes, I agree.

    That's what universal equality means.Ludwig V

    It seems to me that universal equality means that the same things are appropriate to each. Or at least it often means this, or leans in this direction. A kind of classlessness.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    In this case, what is shown is that there are no sentences that are not about some thing, and so not true sentences that are not about some thing. That seems a direct answer to the OP.Banno

    How would this be an answer to the OP? The question we are considering is whether all true sentences are formulable within formalism, and it seems a foregone conclusion that they are not. For example:

    I was curious to learn more about what philosophers have said concerning the parallels between "truth" and "existence" as predicates...J

    Given that there is no explicit predication of existence (or, I think, truth) within formal logics, how could this question possibly be answered by limiting ourselves to formal logics?

    It's a bit like if someone said they wanted to look at the interaction between thunderstorms and tornadoes, and then the lab scientist tries to give an answer without leaving his concrete bunker. The scientific lab in the concrete bunker is very helpful, in large part because it excludes thunderstorms and hurricanes from the environment and makes everything a lot simpler. But if we want to study thunderstorms and hurricanes, or their interaction, then it's no use pretending that the scientific lab within the concrete bunker is going to suffice.

    The classical solution was, roughly, that an extensional understanding of logic is preferable simply because it is simpler.Banno

    Simplifications are preferable until they're not. What often happens is that folks forget they are dealing with a simplification, and they forget that there is something beyond these simplifications.

    But there are intensional logics...Banno

    Sure, and intentional logic would seem to be a topic that is relevant to the thread. The danger of derailment that I spoke of is not present in a discussion of intentional logic, for that which the thread is premised upon is not rejected in such a case. :up:
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    He is clear that he opposes what he calls “psycho / logical dualism”: “a theory of judgment as involving a subjective act and a truth-evaluable content – the unity and complexity of which is external to the judging subject.” In short, he doesn’t accept the Fregean picture that assertoric force is separate from whatever semantic content will determine truth value.J

    This strikes me as an important truth, and one that is missed on TPF (and in analytic philosophy generally). Granted, I do see a measure of separability between assertoric force and semantic content, and this is especially useful in a pragmatic or functional sense, but it seems pure fantasy to claim that they are entirely separate.

    A metaphor for this thread could be the truck in the mud. The Fregian paradigm does fine in many types of mud, and folks like Banno seem to think that it can handle any kind of mud whatsoever, but Kimhi is introducing mud pits that such folks have never seen or even conceived. I would even say that the failure of Fregian logic in certain contexts is demonstrable, and was already demonstrated in the QV thread by folks like Sider and Simpson. The most honest answer from the Fregian would apparently be something like, "Our system cannot and does not address these questions, but we are not interested in the questions anyway."

    But the “psycho / logical monism” that he does accept is (for me) very difficult to understand. I’ll take my best guess and say that, unlike Aquinas, Kimhi sees the “fundamental act of consciousness” as either affirmation or denial – what he calls a two-way capacity, borrowing from Aristotle. Propositions are affirmed or denied by acts of consciousness, not by predications – a kind of “full context principle.”J

    I was thinking of bringing the question of affirmation and denial into the thread as well, as it seems central. For those who view logic as bound up with human reasoning and human mental acts, the foundationalness of affirmation and denial cannot be ignored. This is why Aristotle, Aquinas, and presumably Kimhi are interested in those acts. It has never been clear to me how so many on this forum fail to recognize that logic is bound up with human reasoning and human mental acts, and especially how they manage to insulate logic from mental acts, including analyses of assertoric force, existence-predications, predication of truth beyond mere consistency, intellection of terms as opposed to mere discursive arranging, etc. In practice metalogical concerns are simply ignored, but they become the elephant in the room.

    This has been on my backburner for some time, and I will look at Aquinas (and also Aristotle), but my sense is that Aquinas would say that affirmation and denial are the foundational linguistic and logical acts, but that they are the crest after the trough of the wave of apprehension, and that trough is apprehension of being. So affirmation always does follow upon apprehension of being, but the two are not identical.

    He also has this interesting observation, which harks back to the QV discussion, and to banno’s reminders here about logical form and ontological commitment: Kimhi calls Frege’s logic a functionalist logic, and says moreover that it’s extensionalist, “insofar as the truth-value of a proposition depends only on the extensional identity of its components and the manner of composition. Among other things, that means that logical principles are not about propositions (thoughts) but about what gets quantified.” (my italics) This is a pretty concise way of framing the problem. Because if you oppose this view of logic, as Kimhi does, then you seem to be saying that “propositions (thoughts)” can be the subject of logical thinking without committing to “what gets quantified,” which in turn would mean that existence can – would have to be – more than just “the value of a bound variable.” I dunno, maybe I’m reading too much into it, but that’s what it says to me.J

    These are good and interesting thoughts, but surely the task is to define an alternative to extensionalism, and then within this process one will end up better defining extensionalism. In particular I wonder if we can discern an alternative without adverting to metaphysics and the very difficult question of being qua being. More simply: does a critique of extensionalism require one to appeal to a metaphysical context, or is the critique also achievable within a physical context?

    I do see value in the extensionalism of analytic philosophy, but it also has limitations. On one view extensionalism is a later and inevitable stage in logic, and the preliminary stages involve gaining an understanding of the realities and terms that will be manipulated by the extensionalist framework. It seems that Kimhi is saying that it isn't this simple, and that the paradigm of extensionalism is not even sufficient to make true sense of this later stage of logic. I do think that if we press intelligent extensionalists they will say, "Well yes, I admit that there are simplifications and pragmatic assumptions occurring in our work." Someone like Kimhi is perhaps pressing further, asking for a more precise specification of what those simplifications and assumptions are.
  • The 'Contrast Theory of Meaning' - Ernest Gellner's critique of ordinary language philosophy
    I think this would be toying with language a little too freely. In English at least, we don't 'drive' our bodies, we 'move' them. And in fact, we usually don't even 'move our bodies' – we just 'move'. The body is the subject, not the object.cherryorchard

    Yes, I agree.

    But I don't understand the leap from these clearly acceptable claims to the claim that we don't see material things at all. Where does the 'sense-data' come from, if not from the world outside? And if it does come from the world outside, what are we arguing about?cherryorchard

    These strike me as good points and good philosophizing.

    From your posts, I'm starting to think that what I really need to do is read Aristotle's Metaphysics...cherryorchard

    Perhaps, but there are probably more contemporary and focused treatments of the subjects that interest you. With that said, Aristotle is great once you get the hang of him.

    There are no words in the theory that lack an antithesis. But Gellner seems to suggest here that the theory requires not only that words have antitheses, but also that all theories have meaningful exceptions. Why should it require that? I can't see how it follows logically.cherryorchard

    Right: there is a difference between a word and a theory, or a word and a predication.

    ---

    Your "opponent" is being misled by the common philosophical tendency to assume that every noun denotes an object.Ludwig V

    That seems reasonable.

    (In fact, 'bachelors are unmarried' does sound like something you might really say to someone who wasn't sure what the word 'bachelor' meant – a child or a language learner, e.g.).cherryorchard

    Right, and the connotations of 'bachelor' and 'unmarried man' also differ. If the two terms were identical in meaning then the tautology would be informationless, and this could be chalked up to a lack of contrast. For example, "All bachelors are bachelors."