• Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    we should be able to come up with a one line description of it.

    Take this equation: y=2x+7. In English it would be y is equal to twice x increased by 7.
    TheMadFool

    Perhaps this is what you're looking for?
  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    Do something similar with the equation for superposition (Schrödinger's?).TheMadFool

    It seems to me that you're thinking of a superposition as a kind of law (like F=ma). It's not. It's just a particular kind of state that a quantum system can be in.

    In classical mechanics, the definite position of a system can be calculated. The classical expectation is that it will be in that definite position whether or not it is measured.

    In quantum mechanics (using the Schrödinger equation), the wave function for a system is calculated. The wave function is then used to calculate the probability of finding the system at any definite position. For example, if the wave function has amplitude (i.e., height or depth) at positions' 2 and 10 and those amplitudes are equal, then there is a 50% probability of finding the system at position 2 and a 50% probability of finding the system at position 10. This combination of potentially measurable positions prior to measurement is termed a superposition.
  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    I'm not satisfied with your answer. Thank you for taking the trouble to explain it though. G'day.TheMadFool

    You're welcome! What in particular were you not satisfied with?

    Can you please write that in the usual bra–ket notation?
    Especially the minus sign in R2 is strange.
    SolarWind

    Sure. The minus sign represents a 180 degree phase shift which differentiates the two superposition states. Adding them results in destructive interference for the tails component.

    The coin (or particle) can be represented by a qubit where heads (or spin-up) is defined as:



    and tails (or spin-down) is defined as:



    The quantum coin flipper is implemented by a Hadamard (H) operation:



    1. The coin is prepared in a heads state:



    2. Perform first quantum coin flip:



    3. Perform second quantum coin flip:



    4. Perform measurement:

  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    However, the equation is just one line.TheMadFool

    It's expressed in rules R1 and R2.

    What I see is the problem how, math is a language, a perfectly sensible expression (equation of quantum superposition) in math when translated into another language (natural languages like English), most who do so end up with a contradiction? I can't wrap my head around that, sir/madam, as the case may be.TheMadFool

    Popular science writing is both a blessing and a curse...
  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    Suppose this :point: E is the equation for the superposition of spin states of a particle.

    Your task: Translate E into English.
    TheMadFool

    For an English translation, consider a coin. It has two possible states: heads or tails. There are three operations we can perform.

    O1. Place the coin in an initial state (either heads or tails).
    O2. Flip the coin.
    O3. Measure the coin's orientation (either heads or tails).

    We can also choose a machine to do the coin flipping - either a classical flipper or a quantum flipper.

    Consider an experiment with the following steps:
    1. Place the coin in a heads state.
    2. Flip the coin.
    3. Measure the coin's orientation.

    Over many runs, the observed statistics of heads/tails will be 50%/50% regardless of whether a classical or a quantum coin flipper is used.

    Now consider the following experiment:
    1. Place the coin in a heads state.
    2. Flip the coin.
    3. Flip the coin again.
    4. Measure the coin's orientation.

    In this case, the observed statistics of heads/tails using the classical coin flipper will still be 50%/50%. But using the quantum coin flipper, the observed statistics of heads/tails will be 100%/0%.

    Quantum mechanics formalizes that result. It represents the state of the coin after step 2 as a linear combination of heads and tails (i.e., a superposition) and which can be treated mathematically like any definite state. The way this is done is by applying the mathematical operation to each component of the superposition separately and then combining the results. The following rules apply to a quantum flip:

    R1. quantum flip(heads) = heads + tails
    R2. quantum flip(tails) = heads - tails

    Applying this to the earlier experiment:
    1. prepare: heads
    2. quantum flip(heads) = heads + tails
    3. quantum flip(heads + tails) = quantum flip(heads) + quantum flip(tails) = (heads + tails) + (heads - tails) = heads + heads
    4. measure: heads

    So that particular mathematical formalism correctly predicts what is measured in the experiment. However it doesn't say what it physically means for the coin to be in superposition. That's the job of interpretation.
  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    Contradictions are about statements or propositions, reality itself is not contradictory. Contradictions only occur in language, i.e., when using concepts.Sam26

    Yes, and that's also Schrödinger's position in the "Are the variables really blurred?" quote above. It's worth noting that Aristotle formulated both a logical and an ontological version of the LNC:

    The traditional source of the law of non-contradiction is Aristotle's Metaphysics where he gives three different versions.[14]

    1. ontological: "It is impossible that the same thing belong and not belong to the same thing at the same time and in the same respect." (1005b19-20)
    2. psychological: "No one can believe that the same thing can (at the same time) be and not be." (1005b23-24)[15]
    3. logical (aka the medieval Lex Contradictoriarum):[16] "The most certain of all basic principles is that contradictory propositions are not true simultaneously." (1011b13-14)
    Law of non-contradiction - Wikipedia
  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    That's what I was getting at. What about Schrödinger's cat thought experiment? I suppose it's a veiled criticism of the Copenhagen interpretation which is open to so-called quantum weirdness.TheMadFool

    Yes, Schrödinger posed it to highlight the consequences of accepting a "blurred reality" at the microscopic level. Specifically, that we should then also expect to observe a "blurred reality" at the macroscopic level. But we don't - we observe either alive cats or dead cats, not both at the same time. Thus, for Schrödinger, the apparent "blurred reality" at a microsocopic level is similarly refuted. Our picture is merely shaky or out-of-focus, not a picture of clouds and fog banks. As Schrödinger concludes:

    It is typical of these cases that an indeterminacy originally restricted to the atomic domain becomes transformed into macroscopic indeterminacy, which can then be resolved by direct observation. That prevents us from so naively accepting as valid a "blurred model" for representing reality. In itself it would not embody anything unclear or contradictory. There is a difference between a shaky or out-of-focus photograph and a snapshot of clouds and fog banks.The Present Situation in Quantum Mechanics, 5. Are the Variables Really Blurred? - Erwin Schrodinger

    Yes, despite my math illiteracy, I can tell, it's safe to assume, that there's no mathematical contradiction. The question then is, why do people, scientists, Schrödinger himself for example, resort to analogies that are frank contradictions (the cat is both dead and alive)?TheMadFool

    In Schrödinger's case, he presented his thought experiment to point out what he considered the absurdity of the prevailing view of quantum mechanics (that is, the Copenhagen Interpretation).

    But the thought experiment does not by itself express a contradiction. That requires additional assumptions, such as the "blurred reality" model above and the results of observation (that are not blurred).
  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    Then why all the hullabaloo about Schrödinger's cat? There's something odd about quantum mechanics, that's for sure.TheMadFool

    The hullabaloo is about how to interpret the math, not the math itself. Many Worlds is closest to treating a superposition as a conjunction with the caveat that the opposite spin states are indexed to different worlds: thus no contradiction.

    Why? Using only the axioms of math, whatever they are, we've arrived at a contradiction. What's the next step?TheMadFool

    No, the math doesn't imply a contradiction. Here's an example of a superposition in Dirac (Ket) notation:



    The '+' in Dirac notation is not a logical 'and'. To link the formalism to observation, square the coefficient for a state to calculate the probability that that spin state will be observed (e.g., 0.6*0.6=36% probability of observing spin-up).

    You would need additional assumptions to derive a contradiction. See, for example, Bell's Theorem.
  • Kurt Gödel & Quantum Physics
    1. How on earth does math state, as a mathematical equation probably, the contradiction referred to above (bolded/underlined) without itself being contradictory? This is diabolical sorcery: Here is a mathematical equation :point: Schrodinger's equation perhaps and it's not a contradiction BUT when translated into English, :point: both up AND down, it is a contradiction.TheMadFool

    The issue is only that something was lost in the translation from math to English. Paraphrasing SMBC, "Quantum superposition... It doesn't mean spin-up and spin-down at the same time. At least, not the way you think.
    ...
    It means a complex linear superposition of a spin-up state and a spin-down state. You should think of it as a new ontological category: a way of combining things that doesn't really map onto any classical concept."

    2. Is it possible that quantum mechanics reveals that math is inconsistent?TheMadFool

    No.
  • Why or how was it decided to stick to the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics?
    I mean the non-unitary collapse of the wave function.DeScheleSchilder

    OK, you mean the measurement problem - I wasn't sure.

    The MWI of Everett does away with this. But at the points where a split into two worlds finds place, it seems that a comparable thing to collapse happens.DeScheleSchilder

    Yes - the difference is that unitary evolution continues and so doesn't require a change to the math.

    Bell constrains but not forbids. There even has been proposed an experiment to distiguish between pure, clean chance and dterminism.DeScheleSchilder

    What experiment is that?
  • Why or how was it decided to stick to the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics?
    Why are these undesirebale?DeScheleSchilder

    Non-local theories need to be reconciled with relativity. Hidden variables are constrained by no-go theorems (e.g., Bell's theorem).

    Isn't the unitarity problem, in the MWI, shifted to the branching points?DeScheleSchilder

    What is the unitarity problem?
  • Why or how was it decided to stick to the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics?
    To put it differently, why do almost all think that Einstein (inherent determinism) was wrong and Bohr (inherent probability) was right?Prishon

    I suspect for pragmatic reasons. Copenhagen was seen as the minimalist interpretation. It left the math alone (with the exception of the collapse postulate). That appealed to physicists who just wanted to link experiments with observations (i.e., shut-up-and-calculate).

    Many other interpretations change or extend the math (e.g., objective collapse, de Broglie–Bohm), adding complexity and other undesirable features (e.g., non-locality, hidden variables).

    As David Wallace has noted:

    Call these strategies "change the philosophy" and "change the physics", respectively.

    Famous examples of the change-the-philosophy strategy are the original Copenhagen interpretation, as espoused by Niels Bohr, and its various more-or-less operationalist descendents. Many physicists are attracted to this strategy: they recognise the virtues of leaving quantum mechanics — a profoundly successful scientific theory — unmodified at the mathematical level. Few philosophers share the attraction: mostly they see the philosophical difficulties of the strategy as prohibitive. In particular, attempts to promote terms like “observer” or “measurement” to some privileged position in the formulation of a scientific theory are widely held to have proved untenable.

    Famous examples of the change-the-physics strategy are de Broglie and Bohm’s pilot-wave hidden variable theory, and Ghirardi, Rimini and Weber’s dynamical-collapse theory (see the discussions in chapters X and X of the current volume). Many philosophers are attracted to this strategy: they recognise the virtue of holding on to our standard picture of scientific theories as representations of an objective reality. Few physicists share the attraction: mostly they see the scientific difficulties of the strategy as prohibitive. In particular, the task of constructing alternative theories which can reproduce the empirical successes not just of non-relativistic particle mechanics but of Lorentz-covariant quantum field theory has proved extremely challenging.[5]
    The Everett Interpretation - David Wallace, 2010
  • The end of universal collapse?
    I'll have a re-read when I get a mo, but iirc the friend records that a measurement had taken place but remains unentangled with Wigner because no communication occurs.Kenosha Kid

    Yes. Then, in Deutsch's thought experiment, Wigner performs a unitary operation that undoes the friend's measurement while preserving that record. The preserved record is essentially a single qubit of information that was flipped from |0> to |1> by the friend in both branches. Deutsch says:

    But in particular, the record that the N-S value of the spin was known to the observer at time t''' is preserved.

    At this point, t'''', according to the Everett interpretation, all copies of the observer are once again identical though they had been different in two branches at time t''' (69):
    Quantum Theory as a Universal Physical Theory - David Deutsch, p36

    So the friend themselves (the observer in the above quote) can determine that the qubit is set to |1> which demonstrates for her, as well as for Wigner, that she had made a definite measurement.
  • The end of universal collapse?
    If there was truly zero entanglement prior to and throughout the experiment until Wigner made his own measurement, then he ought to see interference effects as Deutsche originally intended. However by communicating with his friend, e.g. by exchange of photons or electrons, directly or indirectly, after his friend had branched, he would see no such interference effects. It just isn't possible to separate Wigner out of the wavefunction the way you think we can.Kenosha Kid

    So, on your view, Deutsch's thought experiment fails?

    For reference, Deutsch's thought experiment is in section 8 (p32) with the interference experiment (distinguishing MWI from objective collapse CI) described on pp35-36.
  • The end of universal collapse?
    Yes, this is what I meant regarding separability. In reality, it's not that clean: if you have two atoms, say, correlated by exchange of a photon, you cannot evolve them independently: it's a single many-body wavefunction describing the whole system, and the exchange and correlation parts of that are not trivial.Kenosha Kid

    Yes, it's just a thought experiment that shows the implications of QM at a macroscopic level.

    The formalism above necessarily neglects the fact that Wigner and his friend are entangled anyway.Kenosha Kid

    But this is the point at issue. In the thought experiment as described in Deutsch's paper (and assumed in Brukner's paper), Wigner and his friend are not entangled and Wigner demonstrates this with an interference experiment. See below.

    What we should see in MWI is each branch evolving independently as if it were the whole universe.Kenosha Kid

    Each friend's branch evolves independently. But Wigner, per MWI (and unitary QM), can in principle undo the friend's measurement and apply a Hadamard to the spin state (i.e., H((|spin up> + |spin down>)/sqrt(2)) = |spin up>), resulting in a single branch again. The friend would have no memory of what measurement she made [1] but she would have the message saying that she had made a definite measurement. That is, the final state would be:

    |Wigner>|friend>|spin up>|I've observed a definite outcome>

    The above is what MWI (and unitary QM) predicts. Whereas on an objective collapse version of the CI, the spin state after applying the Hadamard would be |spin up> with 50% probability only. That is, the final state [2] would be:

    |Wigner>|friend>(|spin up> +/- |spin down>)/sqrt(2)|I've observed a definite outcome>

    Hence the two interpretations (theories, really) are experimentally distinguishable.

    --

    [1] This is similar to a photon emerging from the second beam splitter of an MZI - it has no encoded information about which interferometer path it travelled along.

    [2] For anyone wanting to check the math, if Wigner were correlated with the spin up state, then applying a Hadamard to that state puts it into superposition: H(|spin up>) = (|spin up> + |spin down>)/sqrt(2). Alternatively, if Wigner were correlated with the spin down state, then H(|spin down>) = (|spin up> - |spin down>)/sqrt(2). Either way, there's only a 50% probability of Wigner subsequently measuring the spin up state.
  • The end of universal collapse?
    I note the posit of a 'real, objectively existing world'. Presumably this is not regarded as an axiom? It would seem a philosophical pre-supposition, at least.Wayfarer

    Realism is a philosophical presupposition. Within that, the terms "intrinsic realism" and "participatory realism" have been proposed (see Table 1 in Interpretations of quantum theory: A map of madness) which differentiates Many Worlds from Copenhagen.

    I'm not a fan of the "objectively existing" qualifier (with it's Cartesian implications). It seems enough to say that the task of physics is to seek a systematic understanding of the world. And we bring our philosophical presuppositions to that task.
  • The end of universal collapse?
    I'm sorry, but I just find this really creepy. And I still would like to know what Deutsch would be obliged to admit if it were shown it could not be true. I mean, what's he frightened of?Wayfarer

    I don't know what his motives are beyond thinking that the Everett interpretation is correct. In the above paper, Deutsch described a method for experimentally distinguishing between the Everett interpretation and a particular version of the Copenhagen interpretation. So he's making his own position subject to falsification. His thought experiment has been the basis for the recent experiments discussed in this thread, and has lead to progress in the area of quantum foundations.
  • The end of universal collapse?
    If this was just a story about the friend telling Wigner that the measurement has been done by, say, sending a photon, ignoring everything else, even that the measurement was a quantum one, would you say that this process of sending a photon from one system to another didn't entangle the two systems?Kenosha Kid

    I would. For Wigner, the photon is separable from the superposed lab. From page 3 of Brukner's paper (where the above photon is system M):

    The novelty of Deutsch’s proposal [10] lies in the possibility for Wigner to acquire direct knowledge on whether the friend has observed a definite outcome upon her measurement or not without revealing what outcome she has observed. The friend could open the laboratory in a manner that allowed communication (e.g., a specific message written on a piece of paper) to be passed outside to Wigner, keeping all other degrees of freedom fully isolated, as illustrated in Figure 1. Obviously, it is of central importance that the message does not contain any information concerning the specific observed outcome (which would destroy the coherence of state (1)), but merely an indication of the kind: “I have observed a definite outcome” or “I have not observed a definite outcome”. If the message is encoded in the state of system M, the overall state is:

    (2)

    since the state of the message is factorized out from the total state (I leave the option for the message “I have not observed a definite outcome” out, as it conflicts with our experience of the situation that we refer to as measurement and it also can be used to violate the bound on quantum state discrimination [8]).
    A No-Go Theorem for Observer-Independent Facts - Caslav Brukner

    Interestingly, Deutsch was originally using the Wigner's friend thought experiment to distinguish an objective collapse version of the Copenhagen Interpretation from Many Worlds. He says,

    In Section 8 I describe a thought experiment whose main purpose is to show how the conventional and Everett interpretations are in principle experimentally distinguishable.Quantum Theory as a Universal Physical Theory - David Deutsch, 1985

    Also of interest, at the end of section 8 (p37) Deutsch uses the term "merge":

    The interference phenomenon seen by our observer at the end of the experiment requires the presence of both spin values, though he accurately remembers having known at a previous time that only one of them was present. He must infer that there was more than one copy of himself (and the atom) in existence at that time, and that these copies merged to form his present self.
  • The end of universal collapse?
    So the upshot is that the friend has made a definite measurement and reported that she has done so to Wigner, without telling him what the result was. At the same time the lab remains in superposition for Wigner, per your (B).
    — Andrew M

    But at this point at the very latest Wigner and his friend should be entangled as they are exchanging information, i.e. they are not two independently evolving systems.
    Kenosha Kid

    Wigner and his friend don't become entangled because the friend is sending exactly the same piece of information to Wigner from both branches, i.e., that a definite result has been obtained. So no which-way information is being sent. It's only when the actual result is measured by Wigner, thus distinguishing the branches, that entanglement occurs.

    In other words, that single piece of information that is identical in both branches factorizes out and is what is measured by Wigner, leaving all other degrees of freedom (such as the alive/dead result itself) fully isolated.

    I’m getting the sense that this new evidence is of the possibility of SOME information from inside the box being communicated to the friend without it being enough of the right information to collapse the wavefunction
    — Pfhorrest

    Yes, and maybe this is what Andrew had in mind too.
    Kenosha Kid

    Yes (in this case, it's information communicated from the friend to Wigner).
  • The end of universal collapse?
    What you're describing art the start is two unentangled systems (B). That is not what the experiment is describing, in which Wigner and his friend are correlated (should be (C), but isn't).

    As I said above, the alternative is to insist that entanglement doesn't occur just when two systems exchange information, but when an observer makes a measurement, which is not justified by the experimental setup.
    Kenosha Kid

    I'm not sure whether we're referring to the same experiment. I'm thinking of David Deutsch’s version of the Wigner’s friend experiment which Caslav Brukner describes in A no-go theorem for observer-independent facts (one of the papers you linked to earlier).

    From that paper:

    The novelty of Deutsch’s proposal [9] lies in the possibility for Wigner to acquire direct
    knowledge on whether the friend has observed a definite outcome upon her measurement or not without revealing what outcome she has observed. The friend could open the laboratory in a manner which allowed communication (e.g. a specific message written on a piece of paper) to be passed outside to Wigner, keeping all other degrees of freedom fully isolated. (italics mine)

    So the upshot is that the friend has made a definite measurement and reported that she has done so to Wigner, without telling him what the result was. At the same time the lab remains in superposition for Wigner, per your (B). Thus the fact about the friend's measurement result is reference-frame dependent (at least, that's the option I choose from Brukner's no-go theorem). That's prior to entanglement between Wigner and the lab, per your (C). At that point there will be no interference effects.
  • The end of universal collapse?
    Many Worlds is fully compatible with Wigner's Friend. It's just a situation where worlds not only can split but also merge again under the right conditions.
    — Andrew M

    That would be different to many worlds in itself. If you have to add a thing (merging criteria) that's a new theory.
    Kenosha Kid

    For MWI, merging as well as splitting is entailed by the unitary dynamics. From the friend's perspective he has, for all practical purposes, performed an irreversible measurement - he measures spin-up in his world while his doppelganger measures spin-down in another world. But from Wigner's perspective, the friend (and his measurement) is simply in superposition (i.e., within Wigner's single world) and he can always apply a unitary transformation that reverses the friends' measurements, thus merging the friends' worlds back into one.

    Copenhagen was originally epistemological, yes. Iirc Bohr himself went the ontological route in the end (I didn't know this until someone here found a relevant quote, should be able to dig it out if need be).Kenosha Kid

    I would be interested in the quote if you can locate it.

    But anyway there's a bunch of ontological Copenhagenists out there.Kenosha Kid

    Strictly-speaking, their position is more like an objective collapse theory (like GRW or the Penrose interpretation) which necessarily differs from the standard unitary formalism. In those particular objective collapse theories, superposition applies to microscopic objects only (which can include the microscopic Wigner's friend experiments that have been performed). Whereas the standard unitary formalism applies also to macroscopic objects.

    Agreed, if 'reality' is left ambiguous between a unique realist objective ontology and many relativist subjective appearances. Philosophical disagreement and repeated failed attempts to discover some missing factor to make everything orthodox make all objectivist attempts suspect from the start.magritte

    This is where specific interpretations attempt to fill in the gaps. Those interpretations will remain with us until we have more definitive experiments.

    I'd be interested in hearing both your thoughts on what kind of relativism this is.Kenosha Kid

    I think Rovelli's relational interpretation is helpful here. It provides a clean abstraction around the idea of reference frames that covers all the issues raised by Wigner's friend:

    The essential idea behind RQM is that different observers may give different accurate accounts of the same system. For example, to one observer, a system is in a single, "collapsed" eigenstate. To a second observer, the same system is in a superposition of two or more states and the first observer is in a correlated superposition of two or more states. RQM argues that this is a complete picture of the world because the notion of "state" is always relative to some observer. There is no privileged, "real" account.Relational quantum mechanics

    As I see it, the main difference between MWI and RQM is that RQM is silent on what a superposition consists of (since it is a more abstract interpretation). Note that what is now called MWI was originally called the relative state formulation by Hugh Everett, and the two interpretations share that relational (or relative) aspect.

    Since the observer-dependence of collapse in these Wigner's friend experiments is essentially a disagreement between observers in their own frames as to whether something is in superposition or not, something like this might be the answer.

    https://www.nature.com/articles/s41467-018-08155-0
    Kenosha Kid

    I entirely agree. In fact, I see we had a brief discussion on this a year back!
  • The end of universal collapse?
    What does this mean? Some interpretations of quantum mechanics would be less compelling. The ontological Copenhagen interpretation is out. Many worlds is out, but not it's curious variant 'many minds' (in which there's no universal branching, rather the mind remains branched). Bohm and the epistemological Copenhagen interpretation look unaffected to me.Kenosha Kid

    Many Worlds is fully compatible with Wigner's Friend. It's just a situation where worlds not only can split but also merge again under the right conditions. That is, decoherence is a local and reversible phenomenon if the system in question is isolated (as it is from Wigner's vantage point).

    Also I think Copenhagen has always been epistemological despite talk of collapse. Per Bohr,

    There is no quantum world. There is only an abstract quantum physical description. It is wrong to think that the task of physics is to find out how nature is. Physics concerns what we can say about nature.Niels Bohr (as quoted by Aage Petersen)

    More broadly, can it really be that reality is subjective? It looks objective enough, but that's the classical limit at work.Kenosha Kid

    I've argued this before, but I think the usual Cartesian subjective/objective dichotomy is badly broken and not a useful way of thinking about the world. Instead I think it's sufficient to talk about systems with state, where state has an informational sense.

    That said, Wigner and his friend aren't people in these experiments... Consciousness does not appear to be a prerequisite for having a unique external reality. Is it nothing more than localism, another relativism with another kind of reference frame?Kenosha Kid

    That's how I think of it. What you are (for us, human beings) and where you stand can make a difference to what you measure as we find with Einstein's theory of relativity. In the Wigner's Friend scenario, what Wigner measures (interference) is different to what the friend measures (a definite result). That just is the reality from their perspective.
  • A Counterexample to Modus Ponens
    ↪TonesInDeepFreeze ↪Andrew M
    Seems we have agreement that modus ponens is not invalidated by the argument in the OP; that the premises are true, the argument valid and the conclusion true, but incomplete.
    Banno

    Yes, so why do McGee's examples seem to be counterexamples to modus ponens when they are not? Because the way the counterexamples are expressed suggest an unrestricted set of possibilities for the conclusion when, in fact, the possibilities are restricted by the assumptions. D. E. Over explains (note his use of the pronoun 'he'):

    And we can bring out even more clearly what is wrong with these supposed counterexamples by considering the following modification of (1) - (3):

    (7) If a Republican wins, then if he is not Reagan he will be Anderson;
    (8) A Republican will win;
    (9) If he is not Reagan, he will be Anderson.

    The antecedent of (7) restricts the possibilities for the interpretation of the pronoun in its consequent. The second assumption (8) does the same job for the conclusion (9), and it would be a transparent mistake to try to interpret 'he' in some other way, in an attempt to show that (7)-(9) is invalid. McGee would make a mistake of this type if he thought of (8) as a relatively long-lasting mental state of justified belief outside of the context of this inference. He would not then see (8) as an assumption in an inference, determining in that context which proposition is expressed by (9).

    An inference should be defined in terms of a relationship between assumptions and a conclusion, as is standard in logic. We should remember that the assumptions can restrict the relevant set of possibilities and so affect the propositions expressed under them, just as the antecedents can affect the propositions expressed by the consequents of conditionals. We must therefore be careful about the propositions expressed in inferences, particularly ones containing conditionals, if we wish to question their validity.
    — Assumptions and the Supposed Counterexamples to Modus Ponens, D. E. Over, Analysis, 1987
  • A Counterexample to Modus Ponens


    Here's another interesting example to test your solution on:

    1. Either Shakespeare or Hobbes wrote Hamlet.
    2. If either Shakespeare or Hobbes wrote Hamlet, then if Shakespeare didn't do it, Hobbes did.
    3. Therefore, if Shakespeare didn't write Hamlet, Hobbes did it.

    Since Shakespeare did write Hamlet, the first premise is true. The second premise is also true, since starting with a set of possible authors limited to just Shakespeare and Hobbes and eliminating one of them leaves only the other. However, the conclusion may seem false since ruling out Shakespeare as the author of Hamlet would leave numerous possible candidates, many of them more plausible alternatives than Hobbes.
    Modus Ponens - Alleged cases of failure - Wikipedia

    I think the conclusion is true, and MP is valid here.

    For a further twist, consider replacing "Hobbes wrote Hamlet" with "1 = 2".
  • A Counterexample to Modus Ponens
    (background assumption) 1TonesInDeepFreeze

    I think we're interpreting the problem differently. You regard 1 as the background assumption, whereas I regard (1 v 2 v 3) as the background assumption (i.e., the die can roll 1, 2 or 3).

    What a person has good reason to believe (if not 1 then 2) is distinct from the logic of the situation (1 v 2 v 3).

    When the person learns that an odd number has been rolled, then the logic becomes (1 v 3). That knowledge update is a change of context, and the person's reasoning changes. They now have good reason to believe (if not 1 then 3), since 3 is now the only possible alternative to 1, albeit remote.

    So my solution is that there is good reason to believe both ~R -> A and ~R -> C.

    Though it is counterintuitive to believe ~R -> A.

    So there is good reason to believe something that is counterintuitive. And that is counterintuitive. (Is it paradoxical?) And modus ponens ponens is not invalid. And I think the problem has more to do with disjunction than with modus ponens. That aligns with you and fdrake in the sense that the puzzle results from leaving off Carter in the disjunction.
    TonesInDeepFreeze

    As I interpret the situation, ~R -> A is not counterintuitive when derived in the appropriate context. Given the polls, a person has good reason to believe a Republican has won (or will win). But Carter might still have won, despite their good reason, since their good reason is not sufficient for truth.

    On the other hand, a person could learn that a Republican has won. Given their updated knowledge (a change of context), Carter cannot have won since Carter is not a Republican. So, given their newly acquired knowledge, if Reagan didn't win, then Anderson did.

    So I think that interpretation leaves modus ponens as valid and also shows how ~R -> A can be intuitive when derived in the appropriate context.
  • A Counterexample to Modus Ponens
    That's really good. It puts the puzzle in stark formal terms and takes out the background noise about the historical election facts. Thanks.TonesInDeepFreeze

    :up:

    In the broader context of all the die faces, the inference would be invalid
    — Andrew M

    I don't get that. The logic is monotonic. So how can adding premises make the argument invalid? And how would we formalize the inclusion of a broader context? I surely see the point that not mentioning (2) relates to the problem, but I don't know how we would formulate that other than just mentioning it, and how it would overturn an argument in a monotonic logic.
    TonesInDeepFreeze

    By broader context, I meant a context where we consider only the characteristics of the die where face 1, 2 and 3 are all possibilities. So we might say, "If it's not 1 then it's 2". That's not a valid inference (since 3 is also remotely possible), but it's a reasonable belief based on the stated probabilities.

    Whereas the more specific context includes (B) which eliminates face 2 as a possibility. So in that context we might say "If it's not 1 then it's 3" which is a valid inference and also a reasonable belief (since there are no other possibilities).

    Meanwhile, I'm inclined to think that a solution would center around problems with the notion of "good reason to believe".TonesInDeepFreeze

    I think so as well. Initially (based on the polls), there's good reason to believe that if Reagan doesn't win then Carter will. But it's not a valid inference, since there is a remote possibility that Anderson will win.

    When we subsequently learn that a Republican has won (or will win), then there is no longer good reason to believe that if Reagan doesn't win then Carter will, since Carter has been eliminated as a possibility. So the remote possibility of Anderson winning becomes the only possible alternative to Reagan winning. So there is now good reason to believe that if Reagan doesn't win then Anderson will. It's a valid inference, even though Anderson winning remains only a remote possibility.
  • A Counterexample to Modus Ponens
    I only have this example. Does anyone have more?Banno

    Here's one (which reflects the election example). Suppose I have a 3-sided die with the following roll statistics:

    [odd]  1: 80%
    [even] 2: 19%
    [odd]  3: 1%
    

    Before the die is rolled, I would have reason to believe 1 would be rolled (since it is rolled 80% of the time). If not 1, then I would not have reason to believe 3 would be rolled (since, when 1 is not rolled, 2 is rolled 95% of the time while 3 is only rolled 5% of the time).

    Note: "It" below refers to the upward face of the rolled die.

    (A) If it's odd then if it's not 1 then it's 3 [per the die characteristics]
    (B) It's odd [premise]
    (C) If it's not 1 then it's 3 [from (B),(A)]

    Note that (B) eliminates face 2 as a possibility. Given that context, (C) can be interpreted as applying to just the odd die faces, in which case the inference is valid. In the broader context of all the die faces, the inference would be invalid (since 2 is a possibility and, furthermore, the possibility I would have reason to believe if 1 has been eliminated).

    I gather that is the general point that @fdrake has been making about the domain change and the problem of how to formally capture the informal argument.

    My question is, how would the argument be formally written to express that context change, and would that argument involve modus ponens or not?
  • There is no Independent Existence
    The issue of realness, which is my main interest, is not boarded, penetrated, or even significantly reach by the cultural use of language, not even by specialty uses of language of writers such as Wittgenstein, Ryle, Austin, etcetera because what is handled by them is logic.Nelson E Garcia

    As @Banno points out, that is not what they were doing. Among other things, they offered critiques of how language goes astray when not woven into our ordinary actions. See, for example, Wittgenstein's private language argument and Ryle's influential book The Concept of Mind. Following Austin's advice, a good place to start for understanding how the word real is used is to check the dictionary. That provides a shared basis for communication which is really what has been lacking in this thread (there's that word!) Then say what you want to say in connection with that.

    So if you have a prejudice against dualities,Nelson E Garcia

    Not a prejudice. Just aware of how disconnected they can be from ordinary life.
  • Idealism and Materialism, what are the important consequences of both.
    (Actually I'm reading a very interesting philosophy of physics book, Nature Loves to Hide, Shimon Malin, which attempts to situate quantum physics in the broader context of Western classical philosophy. Pity you're not nearby, I'd lend it to you.)Wayfarer

    :up: Apropos my earlier post, I see that that book title comes from Heraclitus! :-)

    Yes, quite. Although there's a danger here of giving the sense that QM is a bottom-up theory of ignorance: it isn't. The version of QM that encodes such ignorance (density matrix theories) is mathematically distinct from QM, and will yield different experimental predictions.Kenosha Kid

    Indeed.

    Quantum superposition is experimentally verifiable, so the wavefunction captures something ontological.Kenosha Kid

    Yes. On the other hand, QM can be considered as a generalization of probability theory over complex numbers (see Scott Aaronson's FAQ at the link below). In which case, it's not just Wigner that has no information about the friend's measurement, his entire local environment doesn't either (hence interference)!

    In principle, relativistic quantum mechanics does away with this. Instead of capturing all possible paths from a given initial state, we capture all possible paths between a given initial state and a given final state. There is no need to represent an outcome that will not happen, nor to represent interference between trajectories toward outcomes that are orthogonal.Kenosha Kid

    I'm not quite clear on this point. Consider a MZI with equal arm lengths where the emitted photon always goes to the same detector. We would still need to add the amplitudes of the paths that go to the untriggered detector in order to make the correct predictions. Or do you mean we just don't have to represent path interference around Pluto (since we already know the photon couldn't tunnel out and make it there in time.)

    So what's the alternative to Copenhagen?frank

    Maybe the Zen Anti-Interpretation of Quantum Mechanics? :-)

    I hold that all interpretations of QM are just crutches that are better or worse at helping you along to the Zen realization that QM is what it is and doesn’t need an interpretation. As Sidney Coleman famously argued, what needs reinterpretation is not QM itself, but all our pre-quantum philosophical baggage—the baggage that leads us to demand, for example, that a wavefunction |ψ⟩ either be “real” like a stubbed toe or else “unreal” like a dream.

    ...

    You shouldn’t confuse the Zen Anti-Interpretation with “Shut Up And Calculate.” The latter phrase, mistakenly attributed to Feynman but really due to David Mermin, is something one might say at the beginning of the path, when one is as a baby. I’m talking here only about the endpoint of the path, which one can approach but never reach—the endpoint where you intuitively understand exactly what a Many-Worlder, Copenhagenist, or Bohmian would say about any given issue, and also how they’d respond to each other, and how they’d respond to the responses, etc. but after years of study and effort you’ve returned to the situation of the baby, who just sees the thing for what it is.
    The Zen Anti-Interpretation of Quantum Mechanics - Scott Aaronson
  • There is no Independent Existence
    Clear enough?Nelson E Garcia

    Perhaps you could briefly present the problem that you're attempting to solve, and why the conventional (and scientific) language that most people find eminently useful is not up to the task.

    Have you read Wittgenstein, Ryle, Austin and other ordinary language philosophers? That will give you a sense of where I'm coming from. A quote of Austin's that I find instructive in this context is:

    Ordinary language is not the last word: in principle it can everywhere be supplemented and improved upon and superseded. Only remember, it is the first word.J. L. Austin
  • Idealism and Materialism, what are the important consequences of both.
    So with the Copenhagen Int., we can talk about superposition, but we aren't talking about reality. That's so weird.frank

    Yep. A famous quote attributed to Bohr says:

    There is no quantum world. There is only an abstract quantum physical description. It is wrong to think that the task of physics is to find out how nature is. Physics concerns what we can say about nature.Niels Bohr (as quoted by Aage Petersen)

    That is, what we can say about nature is that you will find, with some well-defined probability, either a dead cat or a live cat in the box when you open it.

    Some Neo-Copenhagen interpretations do add more interpretive meat to the formalist bones (and in interesting ways), but that's the gist.

    the shut-up-and-calculate philosophy or the Copenhagen interpretation (which I think of as shut-up-and-calculate minus the shutting-up part)
    — Get real - Scott Aaronson, Nature Physics, June 2012

    Haha that's excellent!
    Kenosha Kid

    :smile:
  • Idealism and Materialism, what are the important consequences of both.
    (Neo-)Copenhagen interpretations get around it by saying that you can't talk about the state of reality independent of measurement.
    — Andrew M

    That is the point that I was trying to make. I think it calls into question Kenosha Kid’s view that there is ‘one objective reality’ which all interpretations try to approximate or interpret.
    Wayfarer

    I didn't see that quote in this thread, but I think the Wigner's Friend scenario that described suggests one solution to be that Wigner and his friend both correctly describe reality from their particular contexts (as a superposition and a definite result respectively). Perhaps an analogy can be made with differing relativistic length descriptions of the same object for Einsteinian relativistic observers.

    I agree that reality may be one, but that unity must necessarily transcend subject-object dualism,Wayfarer

    :up:

    meaning that it’s out of scope for naturalism as such.Wayfarer

    For modern naturalism maybe. But I'm partial to an Aristotelian four-causes naturalism that is broader in scope (no separable is/ought distinction, for example). Per SEP, "Nature, according to Aristotle, is an inner principle of change and being at rest (Physics 2.1, 192b20–23)." This opposed the Heraclitan and Parmenidean positions of the day that exclusively emphasized universal flux and universal stasis respectively (which to some extent are reflected in modern-day materialism and idealism).
  • There is no Independent Existence
    Thanks for your considered reply.

    We learn that things (objects) exist in their own, but in fact each time you sense-target there is only a substratum which requires mind to become an existent.Nelson E Garcia

    I don't understand what the bolded phrase means nor why I should regard it as a fact. Conventionally, the term mind has an idiomatic use (e.g., I changed my mind), it doesn't have substantial existence (in Descartes' sense).

    Such state of affairs does not affect logical facts such as the one you mentioned: “the Earth existed billions of years before the emergence of human beings (with minds).”Nelson E Garcia

    What is your second sense of fact/state of affairs and what does that usage clarify philosophically?

    Therefore before you become acquainted with my whole frame of mind, all significant aspects of it, I suggest taking my initial explanation as a correction of misguided language. In metaphysical talk (perception metaphysics in particular) it is incorrect to refer to existence-in-its-own, there is no such thing in the universe. Existents become by act of mind.Nelson E Garcia

    What does "become" mean here? You seem to be defining it in terms of mind which, so far, remains undefined. The scientific view is that the Earth came into existence billions of years in the past and has undergone many changes prior to the emergence of human beings. While no-one thinks the Earth existed independently of the universe itself (including atoms and what-not), it's widely understood that the Earth did exist independently of and prior to the emergence of human beings. Are people in some sense mistaken about that? If so, perhaps you could provide your criteria (or the metaphysical authority implied by "In metaphysical talk") for saying that that talk is incorrect/misguided.
  • There is no Independent Existence
    I claim: Objects do not exist independently, there is no existence without mind actualizing it.Nelson E Garcia

    Scientists claim that the Earth existed billions of years before the emergence of human beings (with minds).

    Either you are disagreeing with their claim in which case this is an empirical dispute. Or else you're using words unconventionally which is likely to confuse your audience. If the latter, can you restate your claim in conventional terms?
  • Idealism and Materialism, what are the important consequences of both.
    ↪Kenosha Kid
    Superposition is an epistemological situation, right?
    frank

    There are important constraints on an epistemological view of QM. The main difference between a superposition and classical ignorance is that a superposition exhibits interference effects (an analogy is with a superposed photo).

    In the Wigner's Friend scenario that described, the friend reports to Wigner that she has recorded a definite result (without reporting what it is) but for Wigner, the cat and the friend's lab remains in superposition, continuing to exhibit interference effects.

    The PBR theorem "shows that models in which the quantum state is interpreted as mere information about an objective physical state of a system cannot reproduce the predictions of quantum theory." Which is to say that interpretations understood in that epistemological sense (and assuming QM is correct) are impossible.

    (Neo-)Copenhagen interpretations get around it by saying that you can't talk about the state of reality independent of measurement.

    ... if you adhere to the shut-up-and-calculate philosophy or the Copenhagen interpretation (which I think of as shut-up-and-calculate minus the shutting-up part) then the PBR result shouldn’t trouble you. You don’t have an ontology: you consider it uninteresting or unscientific to discuss reality before measurement. For you, ψ is indeed an encoding of human knowledge, but it’s merely knowledge about the probabilities of various measurement outcomes, not about the state of the world before someone measures.Get real - Scott Aaronson, Nature Physics, June 2012
  • Hole in the Bottom of Maths (Video)
    I came across a nice proof of Godel's Incompleteness Theorem that utilizes computability and Cantor's diagonal argument (UC Davis lecture: Part 1 and Part 2). My summary below.

    Suppose we have a list of all possible computable functions (programs) in some language (say, Python) that each accept a positive integer as input and produce either 0 or 1 as output. A computable function is a finite string of symbols that, when executed, produces an output in a finite amount of time.

    Now consider a table that lists all those computable functions vertically (ordered by string length and symbol index) and the function outputs for each positive integer horizontally.

                      positive integers (input)
                    | 1       2       3       ...     15      ...
                ----+--------------------------------------------
    computable  f1  | f1(1)   f1(2)   f1(3)   ...     f1(15)  ...
    functions   f2  | f2(1)   f2(2)   f1(3)   ...     f2(15)  ...
                f3  | f3(1)   f3(2)   f3(3)   ...     f3(15)  ...
                ... |
                f15 | f15(1)  f15(2)  f15(3)  ...     f15(15) ...
                ... |
    

    The above table shows the first three programs and the fifteenth program, with positive integer inputs 1, 2, 3 and 15. As an example, the outputs might be:

                      positive integers (input)
                    | 1       2       3       ...     15      ...
                ----+--------------------------------------------
    computable  f1  | 0       1       1       ...     0       ...
    functions   f2  | 1       0       0       ...     0       ...
                f3  | 1       1       1       ...     1       ...
                ... |
                f15 | 0       0       1       ...     1       ...
                ... |
    

    Now we define a function f-diag (called f-bar in the lecture) as:

      f-diag(i) = 1 - f_i(i)
    

    i is a positive integer that appears in three places in that definition - as the input to function f-diag, as the index to a function in the computable functions table (i.e., the i-th function), and as the input to that indexed function. Per the above table, the outputs for f-diag (calculated by inverting the diagonal elements in the table) would be:

                      positive integers (input)
                    | 1       2       3       ...     15      ...
             -------+--------------------------------------------
             f-diag | 1       1       0       ...     0       ...
    

    Note that f-diag differs from every computable function by at least one input/output pair. So f-diag is not on the list of computable functions and therefore cannot itself be a computable function.

    Now consider some statements about those functions.

    S1: "f2(2) = 0"
    

    S1 states that the output of function f2 with input 2 is 0. Per the table above, S1 is true. Furthermore, we can prove the statement by executing function f2 with input 2 and it will output 0 in a finite time. What "prove" means here is that there is a mechanical procedure for obtaining the output in a finite time which, in this case, is provided by function f2.

    S2: "f1(3) = 0"
    

    Per the table, S2 is false. We can prove the negation of S2 by executing function f1 with input 3 and it will output 1 in a finite time.

    S3: "f-diag(2) = 1"
    

    Per the f-diag table, S3 is true. But we lack a mechanical procedure for proving it since, as shown earlier, f-diag is not a computable function. Furthermore, any computable function is going to produce a different output to f-diag for at least one input (due to the diagonalization). So the proof system would either fail to derive a true statement about f-diag for such an input (and therefore would be incomplete) or else would derive a false statement about f-diag for such an input (and therefore would be inconsistent).

    Which just is Gödel's First Incompleteness Theorem: In any rich-enough [*] formal proof system that proves only true statements there are true statements that can't be proved.

    --

    [*] A system is rich-enough if it can express f-diag statements such as S3 above. f-diag is a well-defined function and S3 is a statement about positive integers just as S1 and S2 are.
  • Hole in the Bottom of Maths (Video)
    I favour the Platonist view.Wayfarer

    OK. But I just wanted to point out that there are other views, such as Aristotle's, where mathematics and logic aren't considered to be a priori or exempt from empirical validation. Instead, for Aristotle, mathematics and logic were sciences of quantity and reasoning respectively. The qualitative difference to other empirical investigations is just the degree of abstraction and generality employed.

    Which reminds me of this:

    purity.png
  • Hole in the Bottom of Maths (Video)
    t since it was not possible for them [mathematical objects] to exist in sensibles either, it is plain that they either do not exist at all or exist in a special sense and therefore do not 'exist' without qualification. For 'exist' has many senses..
    — Aristotle's Metaphysics 13.1077b-1078a [Book XIII, Part 2 - Part 3]

    So, does a number, say the number 7, exist? You will say - of course, you just wrote it.
    Wayfarer

    No, that's not Aristotle's position. See below.

    But that's a symbol, which denotes a quantity, a numerical value. Different symbols can refer to the same number, but the quantity or count is what the number is, and that is something that only can be grasped by a mind capable of counting; hence, it's an 'intelligible object'.

    Here is a Platonic rejoinder, consisting of a passage about Augustine's view of intelligible objects.
    Wayfarer

    Augustine saw the divine mind as the ground for universals. Whereas for Aristotle, it's the concrete situations themselves, such as seven apples in a bowl, that ground the use of those terms.
  • Hole in the Bottom of Maths (Video)
    Mathematics is true a priori and so empirical validation isn't relevant.Wayfarer

    As Wigner once suggested, there's a deep connection between mathematics and science. Per Aristotle, mathematics is the abstraction of the sensible - taking that which does not exist in separation and considering it separately:

    For if attributes do not exist apart from the substances (e.g. a 'mobile' or a pale'), pale is prior to the pale man in definition, but not in substantiality. For it cannot exist separately, but is always along with the concrete thing; and by the concrete thing I mean the pale man. Therefore it is plain that neither is the result of abstraction prior nor that which is produced by adding determinants posterior; for it is by adding a determinant to pale that we speak of the pale man.

    It has, then, been sufficiently pointed out that the objects of mathematics are not substances in a higher degree than bodies are, and that they are not prior to sensibles in being, but only in definition, and that they cannot exist somewhere apart. But since it was not possible for them to exist in sensibles either, it is plain that they either do not exist at all or exist in a special sense and therefore do not 'exist' without qualification. For 'exist' has many senses.

    ...

    The same account may be given of harmonics and optics; for neither considers its objects qua sight or qua voice, but qua lines and numbers; but the latter are attributes proper to the former. And mechanics too proceeds in the same way. Therefore if we suppose attributes separated from their fellow attributes and make any inquiry concerning them as such, we shall not for this reason be in error, any more than when one draws a line on the ground and calls it a foot long when it is not; for the error is not included in the premisses.

    Each question will be best investigated in this way - by setting up by an act of separation what is not separate, as the arithmetician and the geometer do.
    Aristotle's Metaphysics 13.1077b-1078a [Book XIII, Part 2 - Part 3]
  • What did Einstein mean by “Spooky Action at a Distance"?
    1. Some observer who already has information on the state of entangled particles. God???TheMadFool

    There is no set of local hidden variables that can reproduce the predictions of quantum mechanics. So (subject to the assumptions of Bell's Theorem) there's no information to know, whether for an observer or for God.

    To see why that's the case, you'll need to work through Bell's Theorem. I attempt an explanation here, if that helps.