• Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    I haven’t yet, but I’ll gladly do that in due time, and I’m also going to tell you when I do.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    The notion that all ideas have always existed as actual possibilities is illogical.Pop

    Quite the contrary: In order for someone to come up with an idea, it must actually always have been possible that someone could someday come up with the idea. The actually existing possibility of finding the idea must necessarily fore-exist any and every actual coming-up with the idea, for if it wasn’t possible to come up with the idea, how could anyone find it?

    Hence, the claim that the actual possibility of finding the idea doesn’t come before actually finding the idea is really unlogical. Therefore, and since the possibility itself always actually exists and is essentially bound to the idea, the idea must always actually exist, too.

    Please also see my other arguments in this thread.

    Ideas can only exist relative to a consciousness.Pop

    That is an unwarranted assumption. In fact, it’s even false, as I have already shown in this thread at length. Can you back your claim up?

    A consciousness has to create the ideas, otherwise what is the substrate that they exist on?Pop

    They don’t need any substrate at all; they just exist. On the contrary, each individual awareness/consciousness needs ideas, specifically the Shape (Idea, Form) of Awareness/Consciousness, in which it has to share in order to be an awareness/consciousness in the first place.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Basically, J. K. Rowling’s books contain a very long definition of Harrihood and a great many other properties, too, such as Hagridhood. Since the main variable used to give the characterization of Harrihood is “Harry Potter”, and since this variable isn’t often used to do other things, it has become very attached to the property. This is unlike n, which is used for many, many purposes. It becomes so attached that for every property E, the sentence

    “Harry Potter has property E.”

    is short for

    “For all x, if x has Harrihood, then x has property E.”

    It isn’t much different for names of “real-world” people. For example, “(Albert Einstein)hood” is the name we give to

    the property of being a male human Albert Einstein such that Albert Einstein was born in Ulm and Albert Einstein has such and such genes and ... .

    (I’m not sure that this is the right definition, but this is just an example.)

    The sentence

    “Albert Einstein discovered relativity theory.”

    is short for

    “For every x, if x has (Albert Einstein)hood in our world, then x discovered relativity theory is our world.”



    actually should be 'Harry Potterhood'Janus

    True, though “(Harry Potter)hood” is even better. Then again, there are “real-world” people called “Harry Potter”, so even “(Harry Potter)hood” is ambigious in that sense. Likewise, “Janushood” not only means the property of being you, but also the property of being the Roman god of beginnings. That’s why we can stick with “Harrihood” rather than the other, cumbersomer terms.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Perhaps the observer finds an instance of a square and then creates an idea of it.RussellA

    I have already given compelling arguments showing that the observer cannot create that idea. The square was a square (and many other things, too) before the observer saw it, so it must have been sharing in the idea of squareness (th.i. (that is) the Shape / Form / Idea of Squareness) before the obsever saw it. Hence, squareness itself must also have existed before the observer saw the shape. The observer has no might at all over squareness, so he (gender-netrally used) can’t have created it.

    If I didn't know the idea of squareness, when looking at shapes in the world, I could discover a particular shape having four equal straight sides and four right angles and have the idea that in the world there are shapes having four equal straight sides and four right angles, which for convenience I could name squareness.RussellA

    Okay, so you’ve gotten a glimpse of the idea of squareness and given it the the name “squareness”. That’s all.

    Ideas are external to the shape, as there is no information within the shape that can establish the shape has a single identity.RussellA

    Yes, the Shape of Squareness is external to, separate from, and independent of a particular square (be it an abstract square or an even more particular physical instance of that square). It’s also true that each particular has many properties, so it doesn’t contain enough info to define those properties. However, I never claimed that your discovery of a particular square is the same as your discovery of the Shape of Squareness itself. Rather, your discovery of a particular square can start an undeterministic chain of events which leads to your discovering of squareness itself, creating a mental image of that Shape (uppercase!) in the process. For that to be possible, though, you must have at least some basic, subconscious, intuitive awareness of squareness itself.

    As the idea of squareness has come after the discovery of the shape, it cannot be the idea that was discovered.RussellA

    Actually, it is your conscious awareness of squareness that comes after your discovery of the particular shape. However, that neither means that the idea itself comes after your discovery, nor indeed that you didn’t have under-counscious knowledge of squareness itself before.

    However, I could have an idea and invent a definition to express my idea - for example - I could define X as a square with red inside - as long as I told someone else my definition of X - they would find the same Xness in the world as I doRussellA

    Why? Because they “see” the same abstract Shape (Form, Idea) X as you do.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    If each of two people make a chair independently of the other, would you say that they create chairhood?

    Would you say that the very first star to “forge” a magnesium atom in its heart invented magnesium?

    Let’s say that you have two electrons which were created independently by different processes. On what ground can you say that they’re both the same kind of particle (indeed, even if you swapped them, you wouldn’t have changed anything, not even in principle)? On the ground that they’re both excitations of one and the same quantum field, namely the electron field. This field has been existing since long before the two electrons were created.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    They currently exist only as possibilities. Possibilities are not ideas, as you agree.Luke

    But the possibilities themselves are actual; it’s actually true now and has always been actually true that the ideas can someday be discovered. Moreover, in the case of my algorithm, the possibilities are actually certainties; it is certain now that the ideas will someday be discovered. But the always actual possibilities are defined in terms of their belonging ideas, which are therefore essentially bound to their actual possibilities. Hence, the ideas must always be actual as well, and in particular, they must be actual now.

    How does the "understander" know whether a string is meaningless or meaningful?Luke

    The understander has perfect knowledge of the syntax and semantics of Modern English. He knows what individual English words mean, he knows how English words can be put together, and he knows how the meaning of the resulting composite term is defined in terms of the meanings of the individual English terms.

    Given that not all ideas have yet been "discovered" (right?)Luke

    Yes.

    Given that not all ideas have yet been "discovered" (right?), then wouldn't the "understander" require perfect knowledge or omniscience to be able to distinguish the meaningful from the meaningless?Luke

    No, just as you don’t need to be all-knowing in order to read and understand new books. If you can judge whether the Harry Potter books written by J. K. Rowling are meaningful or not, you can also judge whether the Harry Potter books output by my algorithm are meaningful or not. Indeed, if all-knowledge were needed to understand texts, then that would all the more need the pre-existence of all ideas.

    A symbol-string that seems meaningless to us now might be meaningful to someone 1000 years from now. Given your definition of an understander as "the person or group of people who reads/read every finite-length string put out by the string-outputter", how is it (humanly) possible that any understander will rightly distinguish the meaningful from the meaningless? Also, it is self-evident that the meanings of words and symbols change over time.Luke

    These practical issues are beside the point. There is an infinite set of ideas expressible in Modern English (that is, the English speech spoken in 2020 CE, including its syntax and semantics), yet by far not all of them have been discovered, and new ones are being found all the time. For example, the idea of Harry Potter discovered by Rowling is described in Modern English. According to you, Rowling invented the idea of Harry Potter, but my algorithm will also spit out the Harry Potter books, and the understander will understand their meaning and thus find the idea of Harry Potter just as you can find it by reading Rowling’s books. (As a side note: You can’t be sure that Rowling knows anything about the idea of Harry Potter at all, for she might be an awarenessless automaton that just behaves in a way suggesting consciousness. What matters to you is only your own awareness and your ability to map texts to ideas.) If I give you copies of Harry Potter’s books, could you tell whether they were written by Rowling or by my program?

    To remove the practical issues which make unneeded diversions, let’s regard a fixed formal speech and a creative process associated with it: a programming language and programming. According to you, a programmer who writes a new PASCAL-program invents that program itself, right? For example, you consider me as the inventor of the program AllEndlyStrings itself, am I right? Yet AllEndlyStrings will output each possible source-code of a PASCAL-program after a finite time, including the source code of AllEndlyStrings itself, but also all PASCAL-source-codes that will ever be written. And the Pascal Compiler can compile every one of those texts so long as it obeys the PASCAL-syntax. For that, the compiler doesn’t have to know all possible source-codes. Moreover, since PASCAL is Turing-complete, my program AllEndlyStrings, together with the Pascal Compiler, will deterministically write every Turing-machine / every program that could ever be written.

    Why, then, have I included a copyright notice in my program AllEndlyStrings? Because that particular instance of the program has indeed been invented by me, not merely discovered. So I can’t hinder you from writing the same source-code as I per se, but I can hinder you from writing the same or a similar source-code based on my instance of it, for example from simply copying it. Of course, if you would write the same source-code, it would be overwhelmingly unlikely that you didn’t copy from me, so in that case, for all practical purposes, I could be pretty certain that you would have copied from me.

    You mean to tell me that your algorithm produces only representations of ideas, rather than the ideas themselves?Luke

    Of course; since I’m arguing for the fore-existence of ideas all the time, how could I claim that my algorithm creates the ideas? What my algorithm does is get the understander to “see” ideas without the need for any creativity.

    How can we be sure that we have ever interpreted the symbol-strings correctly? [...]Luke

    In the same way that the Pascal Compiler can decide whether a text obeys the syntax of PASCAL and in that case compile it, without having to know every thinkable source-code, and in the same way that you can do calculations with any natural number without having to know each natural number individually. Also see above.

    [...] But maybe that's the point. Given every possible combination of symbols, you can read whatever meaning you want into it.Luke

    No, certainly not. Also see above.

    The set of natural numbers is infinite, and I assume that a particular symbol can appear in a sequence more than once. [...]Luke

    Yes, that’s right.

    [...] Doesn't that imply there will be at least some symbol-sequences of infinite length, requiring an infinite time to output?Luke

    Yes, that’s true. However, my program only outputs symbol-strings of finite length. It could be extended to output all symbol-strings of infinite length, but for that, it would also need infinite time. (For example, to output all strings of finite or countably infinite length, each of which is indexed by a countable ordinal, it would need an uncountable ordinal number of seconds.)

    Also, why assume that all ideas can be expressed as finite symbol-sequences?Luke

    Firstly, I don’t do that, but if the algorithm argument (which isn’t as far-reaching as my other two arguments) shows that all finitely expressible ideas must fore-exist, then why should things stand otherwise with other ideas?

    There are certainly not-finitely-expressible-ideas since there are uncountably many abstract things (e.g. real numbers), and there are also totally unsayable ideas, I think, but

    1. why should they be any different in terms of fore-existence than finitely expressible ideas (bear in mind that each of the uncountably many reals also pre-exists)?

    and

    2. of what everyday practical importance are they (by “everyday practical”, I also mean actual “real-world” science, art, and philosophy)?

    Secondly, could you please give me one example from our world (the “real world”) where an idea is expressible, but not finitely expressible?

    I’d love to read the infinitely long tale about Alice and Bob and the Mystery of Infinity by Charlie Endless. Should I buy it from Amazon or from Google Books?

    The events can be judged to be neither simultaneous nor non-simultaneous in all (<c) reference frames?Luke
    No, and that’s not what I said. I said that the events neither happen one before the other, nor at the same time. But there is a fourth option, for Minkowski-spacetime is only partially ordered by the light-cone-relationship. By “at the same time”, I mean absolute same-timed-ness, not the relative pseudo-simultaneity which is the case in one reference frame but not another.

    The four absolute options are:

    1. Event A lies in the past light-cone of event B.
    2. Event A lies in the future light-cone of event B.
    3. Event A and Event B happen in the same place at the same time.
    4. Events A and B are separated by a space-like spacetime-interval; neither of them lies in the light-cone of the other, they don’t happen at the same place and time, and neither can influence the other.

    By the way, I do have a theory of linear time, but that’s a wholly different matter.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Not sure what you mean by "in this universe", though.Janus
    By “this universe”, I mean the spacetime-continuum which we live in, along with all the physical things inside it.

    And even if there were how would you establish that any such entity was identical to the fictional Harry Potter? My answer would be that you could not establish this, because by definition any substantive entity could not be identical to a fictional one.Janus

    There’s a subtle point here. There isn’t actually any individual called “Harry Potter”. Rather, “Harry Potter” is a variable used to give a linguistic representation of Harrihood, just like “n” is a variable used to give a linguistic representation of primeness in the following:

    Primeness is the property of being a positive whole number n such that for every positive whole number m, n can be divided by m if and only if m = 1 or m = n.

    When you ask about the identity of the fictional Harry Potter, it’s like asking about the identity of n. The mistake lies in using “Harry Potter” or “n” as if they were proper names when they are in fact variables.

    The same goes for names of real people other than myself. I can directly “see” only my own self with my “mind’s eye”, and therefore, I use “Tristan” as a proper name to refer to that self. However, not being a telepath, I can’t see your self, so I use the name “Janus” as a variable in defining the property Janushood:

    Janushood is the property of being a person Janus such that Janus is a philosopher and Janus is active on the forum The Philosophy Forum and Janus is talking with Tristan about whether ideas are invented or discovered and ... .

    Indeed, I can’t use Janus as a proper name. For all that I know, you might be several people sharing a single forum account, or you may be an extraterrestrial scientist studying human behavior, or you might even be a bot who just behaves in a way which suggests awareness; but the only thing which I can be sure to have awareness is that self which I call “Tristan”. Needless to say, if you are an aware being, then my awareness is equally unprovable for you.

    I hypothesize that Janushood is instantiated by exactly one thing in this world. Under this hypothesis, when I say “Janus is/does so and so”, I mean the proposition that for all things x, if x has Janushood in this world, then x is/does so and so in this world.

    any substantive entity could not be identical to a fictional one.Janus
    I think that there is no such thing as a fictional entity. Rather, the illusion of a fictional entity arises when a variable is treated as if it were a proper name. The same goes for proper names of other concrete things. In both cases, a variable used to specify a property is treated like a proper noun. The only difference is that in the case of fictional entities, the (real) property in question (such as Harrihood) is believed not to be instantiated in our world, whereas in the case of “real” things, the (equally real) property in question (such as Janushood, or from your POV Tristanhood*) is believed to be instantiated in our world.

    *Remark: You use the word “Tristanhood” differently from me. You use it to mean a property which involves The Philosophy Forum, but I use it to mean the thisness of myself.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    We have to wait? I thought all ideas already existed?Luke

    We have to wait to actually see the ideas, but it is already forechosen now that we will see them. Hence, they must already exist now.

    It seems that your algorithm will also produce (mostly) junk strings of symbols that aren't ideas. Is there some method to distinguish the ideas from the junk?Luke

    Might I ask why you keep failing to read through what I write again and again and again? I’ve already said that the system consists of the mechanical string-outputter, e.g. my program, and an understander, who is the person or group of people who reads/read every finite-length string put out by the string-outputter. My program even asks its user to “Please read and understand the following text if it is meaningful”. If the string is meaningless, the understander simply ignores it. If it is meaningful, the understander maps it to the idea which it represents, thus finding the idea. The understander’s mind is absolutely needed and indespensible, but only in its capacity to understand, not in its capacitity to create. The understander only has to be very good at understanding, but doesn’t need any creative ability at all. Of course, he (used gender-neutrally) has to actually read through the symbol-sequences, making the job rather unsuitable for some :wink:.

    Why do you expect the number of years to be finite?Luke

    Because the algorithm systematically outputs all strings of finite length over the same finite alphabet one after the other (here, I only use lowercase letters for illustration): {empty string}, a, b, ..., z, aa, ab, ..., az, ba, bb, bc, ..., bz, ca, ..., ..., aaa, aab, ..., ..., elf, ..., ..., goc, god, goe, ..., ..., aaaa, ..., ..., fast, ..., ..., ..., igotoschool, ..., ..., eismcsquared, ... . It does this by first outputting all strings of length 0, then all strings of length 1, then of length 2, then of length 3, and so on. This gives a one-to-one function between the set of all natural numbers and the set of all finite symbol-sequences over the same finite alphabet. It follows that for every finite string str over the alphabet, there is a natural number n such that str is the nth string output by the algorithm. Don’t tell me that you don’t accept this basic mathematical fact ... do you?

    Possibilities are not ideas.Luke

    I’ve never claimed that ideas are possibilities, and I’ve even said that I don’t think that they are. I’ve made it clear that my argument relies on the fact that every idea is essentially obviously linked to a possibility belonging to it. Yet here you are, still attacking the strawman.

    Being the first one to think of an idea does make it a new idea.Luke

    I’ll say it again: Let EID be an arbitrary idea that someone, call her “Alice”, came up with. Since Alice came up with EID, it must always have been possible for someone to come up with EID. This means that the possibility Poss(EID) that someone could come up with EID must have always existed. But Poss(EID) is defined in terms of EID, so without EID, Poss(EID) could not exist. Hence, EID must have always existed along with Poss(EID).

    Unless you believe that ideas do not require someone to have/think them?Luke

    No, I’ve shown just now that ideas cannot need someone to come up with them, for Poss(EID) is the very ground on which someone can come up with EID in the first place, so EID and thereby Poss(EID) depending on the coming-up would lead to a vicious circle.

    Similarly, it seems to require someone to interpret a string of symbols in order to understand the idea it may contain.Luke

    As I’ve written above, I already said that a long time ago, for example here.

    The direction of the implication is irrelevant to my point. It is all based on the same assumption.Luke

    Have you found a new logical law which says that the implication-operator is commutative? Please do tell! I have shown that if discovering an idea is possible, then the idea must fore-exist. Yet you claim the conclusion of that argument to be an assumption. You do know the difference between assuming and showing, don’t you? Could you please be clearer make your point less confused?

    I don't know who that is, [...]Luke

    He’s the guy who invented the Van-de-Graff-generator (VdGG), that is, who created a mental (and then a physical) instance of the Shape of VdGG-hood.

    but you could say that he invented the idea (not the possibility; the idea).Luke

    Could you back up this bare claim with a justification? But don’t worry if you can’t, for we’ve already seen it to be false, and what is false cannot be rightly justified, or so I think.

    From which reference frame can the events be judged such that "neither event is first, but the events also don't happen at the same time"?Luke

    From every inertial under-lightspeed reference-frame. That’s because when the spacetime-interval between two events is space-like in one inertial under-lightspeed reference-frame, it’s space-like in all inertial under-lightspeed reference-frames.

    Then the "someone" before Alice would have invented the ideaLuke

    Actually, Alice is the first one, but the fact that someone could have found it before her means that the thing (the Idea itself) which underlies the sameness of Alice’s idea and Bob’s idea must have been able to jump in and therefore to exist before Alice’s time.

    But now consider an infinitely old and big world (which our world may well be; think eternal inflation for example). In such a world, it’s almost certain that for every idea EID and anyone who finds, there is someone who found it before him (again gender-neutral). Therefore, nobody could have invented EID, because there is always someone who came up with it earlier. Yet EID still exists. Hence, it can’t have been invented. Since whether or not ideas are invented is an essential feature of ideahood and thus can’t depend on the features of our concrete universe, it follows that ideas can’t be invented.

    we might just say that they both came up with the same idea independently. That is, we could go back to your own example of Leibniz and Newton.Luke

    Yes, they both discovered calculus independently of each other, each thereby creating his own mental manifestation thereof.

    In the preceding discussion on the previous page.Luke

    Could you be more precise?

    I had in mind a definition of abstract such as this: "existing in thought or as an idea but not having a physical or concrete existence."Luke

    Actually, according to my understanding, abstractness is the property of being not-physical, not-mindly, not-timely, not-spatial, and simple. However, it’s not just according to my understanding that abstract things aren’t mindly (see e.g. the SEP-entry on abstract objects and in particular the definition given in the second paragraph of its third section).

    As far as I know, only physical, temporal, living beings have thoughts and/or ideas.Luke

    Actually, the soul is an abstract entity, and the free soul is really the most aware, conscious, and thoughtful thing there is regarding abstract objects. Indeed, when it becomes embodied and thus forms a living being such as a plant or an animal (such as a human), it’s mindly abilities usually become weakened. How much depends on the computational power of the body which it lives with. Yet what it gains is knowledge of concrete and temporal objects and the ability to interfere in the temporal realm (and indeed the ability to interfere at all, for in the abstract world, nothing can be changed). A big part of this is the ability to make concrete instances of abstract things. However, all this is a matter rather different from the topic of this thread.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    ideas are abstract concepts, not physical objects.Luke

    Exactly, and by the definition of abstractness, they are neither spatial nor temporal and thus cannot have a beginning in time. In particular, they cannot be invented.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Does Harry Potter exist?Janus

    Yes, he certainly does and always has – the property of being a male human wizard, having parents called “James” and “Lily”, being called “Harry Potter”, being the arch-enemy of a mighty evil sorcerer, asf., exists. After all, we’re thinking and talking about it right now. However, there is no object in our universe (as far as I know) which has that property – (Harry Potter)-hood has no flesh-and-blood-and-mind instance in our universe. The only concrete things in our universe associated with him are things like thoughs and texts about him.

    If so, does he exist in the same way you do?Janus

    No, for unlike Harrihood, the property of Tristanhood does have a flesh-and-blood-and-mind instance in our universe. Because of that, its manifestation is this universe is much realer than Harrihood’s.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    After observing several instantiations, the observer could invent the idea of squareness, but the observer could never discover the idea of squareness within the instantiations themselves - because there is no discoverable information within the instantiations themselves that links in any special way one particular form within one instantiation to another particular form within a different instantiation.RussellA

    Individual squares do indeed not only instantiate squareness, but also rectangle-hood, parallelogram-hood, (four-sider)-hood, (geometrical-shape)-hood, abstractness, thinghood, and many more properties. Therefore, you’re right in saying that they could never by themselves cause someone to find squareness itself. That’s why finding ideas does involve creation, namely the creation of mental instances of them. It’s creation in the strict sense only if the finding of the ideas wasn’t pre-determined, though.

    You can see that squareness can’t be invented by realizing that all folks find the same squareness and that you cannot change anything about your supposed invention even one wee bit.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    How does your algorithm give us the Mona Lisa? Or a toaster?Luke

    This is another thing that I’ve said before, but I’ll say it again. The algorithm will output an exact linguistic description of the Mona Lisa, for example by specifying the stroke order to draw the painting, giving a raster description of the Mona Lisa in terms of pixels, or even by telling you which atoms lie where on the paiting. In fact, the Mona Lisa that you see on the Internet is just a sequence of 1’s and 0’s, so it has already been converted into a number, and my algorithm will output that number. Likewise, the algorithm will spit out an exact description of the toaster, complete with sequences of 1’s and 0’s that define digital images and even videos of the toaster. The understander only needs to read and understand these symbolic descriptions, and voila – he (used in a gender-neutral way) finds the idea of the toaster. Without any creativity whatsoever. The same goes for the Mona Lisa. Hence, both ideas already exist at least in the algorithm, only waiting to be “unpacked”.

    Obviously if you assume that ideas have some type of pre-existence then their discovery must be possible. I challenge the assumption.Luke

    You’ve gotten the implication the wrong way round. In reality, if discovering an idea is possible, then the idea must fore-exist. That’s the direction in which I argue. If it had not always been possible to discover an idea, then at some point in the past, it must have been impossible. But then no one could ever discover it. For example, if it had once not been possible that someone could come up with the Van-de-Graaff-generator, then by definition of possibility and impossibility, Robert Jemison Van de Graaff could never have invented an instace of it, which he clearly has.

    even if they are qualitatively identicalPfhorrest

    What is the ground for that qualitative identity? It is that both share in one and the same abstract eternal uncreated universal, and this is what we call “an idea”, from Greek “ἰδέᾱ” = “Shape, abstract “look”, (abstract) Form.

    What if they both came up with it at the same time? Anyway, it is your position that neither of them can come up with the idea without it pre-existing, so why is it absurd/impossible for the first person in this scenario to come up with the idea without it pre-existing?Luke

    What if the events of coming-up are separated by a space-like spacetime-interval, so that neither event is first, but the events also don’t happen at the same time?

    The key point is that even if Alice was first, there could have been someone before her, so the thing which explains the likeness that her thought bears to Bob’s must have been able to jump in before Alice’s coming-up.

    and I have offered arguments for why it is not.Luke

    Could you please say where?
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    I take it then that we can thus start with a list of any size, even just one item long, and continually generate new numbers that aren’t on it to add to it.Pfhorrest

    More importantly, the length of the list that you start with can be transfinite. By repeating the process an uncountable infinite number of times, you can actually list all real numbers. The final list, which includes all reals, and each one exactly once, will be indexed by the uncountable well-ordered set of all ordinals whose cardinality is less than that of the continuum. If the Continuum Hypothesis is true (which I don't know), then this is the uncountable well-ordered set of all countable ordinals.

    I think you’re [Luke] still interpreting me in an unnecessarily Platonic fashion.Pfhorrest

    Actually, I also interpret you in a (lowecase ‘p’) platonic way, and that is the impression that you give of yourself. Also, you seem to argue (very well, I think) for platonism, in which case I would fully support you. I’m a platonist myself, and I certainly am arguing for platonism, whose truth is self-evident imho.

    I don’t really see how these true words (in which you only forgot the elves :wink:):

    I’m saying that it makes no sense to talk of making or creating ideas (not merely instantiating them), so their existence status doesn’t change when someone thinks of them. They don’t come into existence or go out of existence, we can’t do things to make or destroy or change what kinds or ideas there are to be had. We can just have them, start having them, stop having them, but they themes[elves] don’t change, only what we do changes.Pfhorrest

    are compatible with this claim:

    I’m not saying that, unless some idea already exists “out there” somehowPfhorrest



    But what they are is nothing more than the possibilities of us doing (thinking) things, so it’s also not so clear that we’re “discovered” them like we discover concrete things. We’re just also not “creating” them like we create concrete things either.Pfhorrest

    Actually, ideas are likely not mere possibilities. For example, even if no physical universe and no minds existed, so that it would not be possible to come up with the Van-de-Graaff-generator, the property of being a VdGG would still exist. Actually, without it, the hypothetical very fact that coming up with the VdGG is impossible could not exist.

    I think that it’s very clear that we discover ideas rather than invent them, but that in doing so, we invent conrete mental instances of them unless we find the ideas deterministically (e.g. with my algorithm), in which case the instances wouldn’t be created in the strict sense (but still in a broader sense).

    But when we're talking about concrete objects, if I make a chair, and you make an identical chair, we've still made two chairs, not one chair.Pfhorrest

    Making two chairs independently of each other is very much like coming up with the same idea independently of each other; in the former, Alice and Bob independently create two different physical instances of one and the same Shape of Chairhood, while in the latter, they independently create two different mental instances of one and the same Shape (Form, Idea), and this Shape is what we call “idea”. By the way, we talked of VdGG-hood and toasterhood as ideas, so the same goes for chairhood, doesn’t it?

    If in coming up with an idea, I make that idea, I create it, invent it, bring it into being... and elsewhere independent of me you come up with an identical idea, in the same way that I already did unbeknownst to you... then you and I have made two different, but identical, ideas, like the two different but identical chairs.Pfhorrest

    That’s right, and in the same way, we can see that making a chair does not make the Form of Chairhood itself.

    you [Luke] say that coming up with an idea is like building a chair: a clear act of creation.Pfhorrest

    Actually, the two are very alike. The only key differences, I think, are that in the former, the idea is discovered and its created instance is mental, whereas in the latter, the idea is already known and its created instance is physical. In both cases, though, the concrete instances are clearly created, and the ideas themselves are clearly not created. However, the concrete instances are only created in the strict sense if their creation wasn’t forechosen, so in the case of my algorithm or when there is a pre-existing order to build a chair, the concrete instances aren’t created in the strict sense (though they’re still created in the broad sense).
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    You can list all reals, but you need transfinite ordinal numbers for that.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    You appear to be a platonist, [...]Janus

    Yes, you bet that I am. The philosophy of platonism (lowercase ‘p’) is the only option which doesn’t contain contradictions or absurdities. It still strikes me that so many people do not see this wonderfully simple and overwhelmingly obvious truth.

    Moreover, while I’m not a Platonist (uppercase ‘P’) since I’m not a follower of others, I do hold many basic tenets of Plato’s Theory of Forms and his unwritten Theory of Principles, and I also feel that there must be a totally unsayable experience of the Holy above and beyond philosophy and reason which underlies all of philosophy. This is something that Plato experienced according to Christina Schefer (for more info, see my comment). But I digress.

    [...] in that you seem to be asserting the substantive existence of possibilities.Janus

    Yes, and speaking

    [..] is a mere tautology [...]Janus

    of tautologies, asserting the existence of possibilities is simply asserting their substantive existence.

    and neither of these, as I see it, have any substantive existence.Janus

    That doesn’t make much sense to me. If something exists, then it exists.

    It is logically possible, although perhaps not physically possible, that rainbow coloured, translucent leprechauns exist; but that doesn't entail that they really exist in any sense. Also, it may not be physically possible for them to exist. If something is logically possible, yet not physically possible would you still want to say it enjoys substantive existence of any kind?Janus

    Yes, and even the logically impossible exists in a way. To make clear what I mean, we have to distinguish two kinds of existential statements:
    • ”Is-there”-statements, such as “The number 9 is there” or “The number 9 exists”. This truly asserts the existence, the being-there of a thing, namely the number 9. In German, these are “ɂist-da”-statements, as in “Die Zahl 9 ɂist da” and “Die Zahl 9 ɂexistiert”.
    • “There-is”-statements, such as “There is an odd number”. These are logically equivalent to infinite disjunctions. For example, “There is an odd number” is logically equivalent to the disjunction “1 is odd or 2 is odd or 3 is odd or ...” of all propositions of the shape “n has oddness”. In German, these are “ɂes-gibt”-statements, as in “Ɂes gibt ɂeine ɂungerade Zahl” and “Ɂes ɂexistiert ɂeine ɂungerade Zahl”. The thing which plays the key role in a “there-is”-statement is a property; in our case, the very property of being odd – oddness itself.
    So what about logically impossible things like odd even numbers? Well, just as the property of oddness exists and is very real, so the property of being an odd even number also exists and is very real. That must be so, for every property has the property (propertihood) of being a property, and to have properties, you have to be and therefore to exist. Also, being an odd even number has the property that I can think about it. However, it has no instances, and indeed it cannot have any instances, that is, the disjunction of all propositions of the form “n has the property of being an odd even number” is logically false. That is what we mean when we say that odd even numbers logically can’t exist.

    So if even logically uninstantiable properties exist, then both logically but not physically instantiable properties, and physically instantiable but uninstantiated ones, exist all the more. In any case, the very property of being a rainbow coloured, translucent leprechaun exists and is real. Indeed, without it, the fact that there are no rainbow coloured, translucent leprechauns in our world (as far as I know :wink:) couldn’t exist.

    By the way, just because something isn’t physically possible in our universe or world doesn’t mean that it isn’t physically possible in another universe or world.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Of course it does. If something is possible, then it must always have been possible, so that possibility must have always existed. If something is impossible, then by definition, it will definitely never happen, so it won’t ever become possible. Hence, all possibilities, and with them all ideas, for each of these is essentially connected to a possibility, must have always existed, only waiting to be found.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Each irrational number is an "idea", so this process cannot exist.jgill

    So it’s even better: all the irrationals exist eternally even though no algorithm can find each of them after a finite time. The set of all linguistically ideas, though, is countable, so an algorithm (an implementation of which I have given here) exists which outputs each idea after a finite time. This means that ideas are at least as eternally existing and real as irrational numbers.

    Moreover, if you allow transfinite time, then all the irrationals can actually be found.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    With abstract things, ideas, that's not so clear. Because abstract things are just possibilities to begin with, and being the first one to do something that was always possible doesn't make it possible; but it's also not like the possibilities are lying around out there in space somewhere apart from the instances of people doing them. So neither invention nor discovery in the sense that we use them of concrete things really makes complete sense applied to abstract things, but something that's kind of like both of them at the same time does.Pfhorrest

    Here, I actually disagree with you slightly on some (but not all) points. Firstly, I don’t think that all abstract things are possibilities, but whether that is so or not doesn’t matter for my arguments. What matters is the essential tie between abstract entities (such as an idea EID) and corresponding possibilities (such as the possibility of someone coming up with EID).

    Secondly, I am quite certain that abstract entities broadly and possibilities in particular do in fact “lie around” in some abstract “space”. That is what our arguments show.

    Furthermore, I think that it does actually make perfect sense to distinguish between discovery and invention, and that both of these terms are always meaningful: Ideas can only ever be discovered, and in discovering an idea, you invent an instance thereof. These two can be distinguished, but as they always happen together, they cannot be separated.

    However, I strongly agree with you that being the first one to do something that was always possible doesn't make it possible.

    They already are in linear order, but I think you mean well-order, right? If so, then you may be pleasantly surprised: They can be put into a well-order by the Well-Ordering Theorem.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Tristan L claims that it has been demonstrated "at length" to be false that anybody needs to come up with ideas, yet his supposed proof of this involves two people coming up with the same idea.Luke

    That is only one of three proofs which I have given and which independently of each other show the uncreatability of ideas. The other two are the one with the possibilities and the one with the deterministic algorithm.

    It systematically outputs all finite-length strings made up of the printable ASCII-characters, including spaces, letters (uppercase and lowercase), numerals, and punctuation marks. That your lifetime likely isn’t long enough to see it output many interesting ideas has no bearing on my argument. What matters is that for every expressible idea EID, without exception, the implementation of my algorithm will find EID and spit it out after a finite number of years. You originally claimed here that no such algorithm exists, but when I showed you otherwise, you didn’t concede the point, but rather tried to divert attention to something irrelevant.

    It seems to me that he’s not arguing against invention-only, but rather he is arguing for discovery-only.Luke

    I think that I’ve made it clear enough that I indeed argue for discovery-only when it comes to ideas themselves, but that I also hold that in discovering ideas, one invents instances thereof, in which Pfhorrest seems to agree with me:
    I wouldn’t say that that means ideas are discovered-only though, because the act of finding the content of an idea is also an act of creating an instance of it, which is why I don’t think the two can really be distinguished.Pfhorrest
    By the way, here we have a great example of two people – namely Pfhorrest and me - coming up with the same idea. Indeed, there are several ideas which we discovered independently of each other, such as


    • the argument with possibilities (though there are differences in the particulars, such as Pfhorrest making the additional assumption that all abstract things are possibilities, whereas I see only an essential link between abtract things in general and corresponding possibilities), which I first wrote down more than two years ago (in which I argue not just about ideas, but about things broadly), and
    • the idea that ideas are discovered, but instances thereof invented, which is a central pillar of my theory of intellectual property (but see my next comment; Pfhorrest may not hold that same position after all).

    The conflation of possibilities and ideas continues...Luke

    As I’ve already said twice and will say again, I don’t think (but also don’t rule out) that ideas are possibilities. However, every idea EID is essentially linked to the possibility that someone can find EID, and since that possibility must exist from the start if anyone is ever to come up with EID, EID must also exist from the start. It’s like the existence of the fact that 5 is odd needing the existence of 5 itself. The failure to actually read what I write goes on ...
  • The Principle of Bivalence and the Law of the Excluded Middle. Please help me understand
    Regarding timeless propositions or propositions about the present or past, I still think that you have misunderstood LEM. In general, (TRUE(A) v TRUE(B)) is stronger than TRUE(A v B). Hence, (TRUE(A) v TRUE(~A) for every proposition A) is a stronger principle than (TRUE(A v ~A) for every proposition A). The latter is LEM, but the former is the principle which you incorrectly (according to my understanding) regard as equivalent to LEM when it is indeed nothing other than PB. The two are equivalent only if we already presuppose the bivalence principle PB that each proposition A is either true (we have TRUE(A)) or false (we have TRUE(~A)). Bear in mind that falsehood is just truth of negation, that is, for every proposition A, FALSE(A) = TRUE(~A) by definition.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    What about fictional concepts/characters? Surely they are invented and not discovered?Luke

    Not at all; like all ideas and indeed all abstract entities, they are discovered, not invented. However, instantiations of them are invented. Abstractly, there is no difference in realness between Albert Einstein and Sherlock Holmes - both are eternal and have always existed. However, there is a difference between them regarding how either is instantiated in our world: We call Einstein real and Holmes fictional because there is a concrete manifestation of the former in our concrete world as a human being of flesh and blood, whereas the only concrete instance of the latter in our world is as instances of sequences of symbols written by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle. Einstein’s instance was invented in his mother’s womb, whereas Holmes’ instance was invented in Doyle’s head.

    Likewise, the very property of being the king of the gods, having might over thunder and lightning, (supposedly) being the god of justice, being a womanizer asf. (and so forth) always exists, and it is the abstract Zeus, a fictional character. That this character itself hasn't been invented by the Greeks is shown thus: If the universe or multiverse is endless, then it's almost certain (probability = 1) that on another planet, sapient living beings will have come up with the selfsame character description of Zeus as the Greeks wholly independently of them. If the Greek Zeus himself had been invented by the Greeks and the alien Zeus himself by the aliens, there'd be no point in calling them the same. However, they certainly are the same, which can only be explained by an underlying eternal abstract fictional character Zeus being discovered by the Greeks and by the aliens independently of each other. What the Greeks did invent is their concrete thoughts about Zeus. The same goes for the aliens. Whether the universe is actually infinite or not is irrelevant; that if it is, there’d be another independent discovery of Zeus, is enough.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    They each came up with the same idea independently. Isn’t that what you’ve told us? What other ground do you need?Luke

    This has already been answered to the point by . I'd only like to add that Alice and Bob might also come up with the same idea by complete coincidence.

    I asked what algorithm exists. Such an algorithm does not exist.Luke

    Actually, that is not true, for such an algorithm does very much exist. Here is a working implementation in PASCAL which I have written:

    {
    * Copyright (c) 2020 Tristan L. All rights reserved.
    * }
    
    program AllEndlyStrings (input, output);
    
      const
      FIRSTASCII = 32;
      LASTASCII = 126;
    
      type
      tRefChainlink = ^tChainlink;
      tChainlink = record
                     c : integer;
                     next : tRefChainlink
                   end;
      
      var
      charstr : tRefChainlink;
      HowManyTextsNext : longint;
      z : tRefChainlink;
      seekfurther : boolean;
      textnumber : int64;
      
      procedure writecharstr ( incharstr : tRefChainlink );
      
        var
        t : tRefChainlink;
        seekfurther : boolean;
      
      begin
        t := incharstr^.next;
        while t <> nil do
        begin
          write ( chr(t^.c) );
          t := t^.next
        end
      end;
    
    begin
      writeln ( 'Copyright (c) 2020 Tristan L. All rights reserved.' );
      writeln();
      new ( charstr );
      charstr^.c := -1;
      charstr^.next := nil;
      HowManyTextsNext := 1;
      textnumber := 0;
      while 0 = 0 do
      begin
        while HowManyTextsNext > 0 do
        begin
          HowManyTextsNext := HowManyTextsNext - 1;
          z := charstr;
          if z^.next = nil then
            seekfurther := false
          else
            if z^.next^.c < LASTASCII then
              seekfurther := false
            else
              seekfurther := true;
          while seekfurther do
          begin
            z^.next^.c := FIRSTASCII;
            z := z^.next;
    	    if z^.next = nil then
              seekfurther := false
            else
              if z^.next^.c < LASTASCII then
                seekfurther := false
              else
                seekfurther := true
    	  end;
    	  if z^.next <> nil then
    	    z^.next^.c := z^.next^.c + 1
    	  else
    	  begin
    	    new ( z^.next );
    	    z^.next^.c := FIRSTASCII;
    	    z^.next^.next := nil
    	  end;
    	  writeln ( 'Please read and understand the following text #', textnumber, ' if it is meaningful:' );
          writecharstr ( charstr );
          writeln();
          writeln();
          textnumber := textnumber + 1
        end;
        write ( 'How many texts do you want to read next?' );
        readln ( HowManyTextsNext );
        writeln();
      end
     end. { AllEndlyStrings }
    

    You can get the Free Pascal Compiler from here.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    I also don’t think that ideas are the same as possibilities. However, that doesn’t matter. What matters is that ideas are essentially tied to possibilities: For every idea EID, the possibility that someone comes up with EID cannot exist without EID itself existing, and since the possibility must have existed from the start, so must the idea EID itself.

    You’ve answered one point (but still have to reply to this my answer to your reply), but not the others:
    • On what ground can we say that Alice and Bob have independently come up with the same idea?
    • How can ideas be created when my algorithm deterministically spits them out?
    • You seemed to imply that one could not algorithmically find the Mona Lisa or the toaster as one can find natural numbers, but Pfhorrest and I have shown you otherwise. What do you say to that?
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    When I write a poem, am I inventing or discovering it? I would say inventing because that is different than, say, calling to mind a poem I have previously memorized, which would be an act of discovery of or finding something already there, however complete or incomplete it might be.Janus

    When you’re writing a poem, you are discovering it, not inventing it. There’s a fixed, eternal, uncreated 1-to-1 mapping between the set of all poems and the set of all natural numbers. This fact is obvious and uncontroversial. Hence, since all natural numbers are uncreated and eternal, the same goes for all poems.

    However, while the poem itself is an abstract entity and therefore uncreatable, concrete instances of it aren’t. When you creatively write a poem, you discover the poem itself, but you invent a concrete instance of that poem. When you remember someone else’s poem, however, you not only don’t invent the poem (this is always the case), but you don’t even invent a concrete instance of the poem. Rather, you only discover a concrete instance of the poem.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    This presupposes that all ideas already exist in their entirety prior to being discovered.creativesoul

    No, it does not presuppose anything. Here’s why:
    Another proof uses possibilities, which Pfhorrest already mentioned. It runs thus: For every idea EID that anyone can come up with, the possibility that someone can come up with EID must have always existed. But since this possibility is essentially tied to EID itseld, EID must also always have existed.Tristan L
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?


    I must have missed it.Luke

    Indeed :wink:.

    Can you quote where this was "shown at length"?Luke

    Here are some points with which Pfhorrest and I have shown that ideas are eternal and uncreated:

    It would be possible in principle to set out on a deterministic process of mechanically identifying every possible ideaPfhorrest

    Surely every possibility is already possible, right? There is some (infinite) set of things that are possible, and by discovering that something is possible, we don't thereby become the cause of its possibility; it was already a possibility, we just found it among that infinite set of possibilities.Pfhorrest

    What similar algorithm exists in order for us to "discover" the supposedly pre-existing ideas of the Mona Lisa or the toaster? — Luke

    Trivially, one could mechanically iterate through every possible series of brush strokes on the canvas (more clearly illustrated if we think of a digital image and iterate through every possible series of pixels) and eventually get the Mona Lisa. Likewise one could iterate through every possible arrangement of atoms and eventually get a toaster. Or instead one could randomly throw together brush strokes or atoms until eventually one got the thing in question — like the infinite monkeys with typewriters producing the complete works of Shakespeare.
    Pfhorrest

    Indeed, all ideas already exist, only waiting for minds to discover them. Here’s a proof: It’s certainly possible for two individuals, say, Alice and Bob, to come up with the same idea EID independently of each other (this happened e.g. with Newton and Leibniz independently discovering calculus). But what gives us the right to say that they have both come up with the same idea? Well, if Alice and Bob had independently invented EID, then Alice’s EID would be different from Bob’s EID, and there would be no basis whatsoever on which we could rightly say that Alice and Bob came up with the same idea EID. Therefore, Alice and Bob must have independently discovered one and the same idea EID, which is an abstract entity which always was and always will be and whose existence is independent of Alice and Bob.

    It is only on ground of both Pfhorrest and I having independently discovered the idea that ideas are abstract and cannot be made and how to show this, that it is meaningful and true that we both came up with the same idea. Like that, we can use the theory that ideas are eternal and uncreated to prove that very same theory :wink:.
    Tristan L

    Another proof uses possibilities, which Pfhorrest already mentioned. It runs thus: For every idea EID that anyone can come up with, the possibility that someone can come up with EID must have always existed. But since this possibility is essentially tied to EID itseld, EID must also always have existed. I used a very similar argument with the same idea some years ago on another forum to show that coming into existence and going out of existence are illusions.Tristan L

    It would be possible in principle to set out on a deterministic process of mechanically identifying every possible idea — Pfhorrest

    For example like this: Write a program that systematically outputs all possible finite-length strings of letters: a, b, c, ..., z, aa, ab, ..., az, ba, bb, bc, ..., bz, ..., ..., aaa, aab, aac, ... . For every idea EID expressible in finitely many symbols (including relativity theory, quantum mechanics, Plato’s Theory of Shapes, his unwritten Theory of Principles, the plot, theme and ideas of Hamlet, to name just a few), this program will output a description of EID after a finite amount of time. Does that mean that the mind is unneeded for finding new ideas? Certainly not, for the program doesn’t understand the meaning of the symbol-strings which it outputs. What you still need is a person (or group of people) who reads every string output by the program. The system made up of program and person (or group of people) will find every finitely describable idea after a finite time in a fully deterministic, uncreative way, independently of all other folks who might come up with the same ideas in the more traditional (and efficient) way. This shows that all the ideas must be abstract and uncreated, and it is the nail in the coffin of any claim that ideas are invented rather than discovered. It also shows that while the mind is totally needed and indispensible when finding new ideas, its creative faculty is not needed in the least; rather, what is needed is the mind’s ability to understand, to “see” ideas, and to map symbol-strings to ideas.
    Tristan L

    We have already given concrete examples of such algorithms. The Mona Lisa is made up of finitely many atoms; hence, my algorithm will spit out a complete description of the Mona Lisa after a finite time. The same goes for the toaster – the algorithm will spit out a complete and accurate description of the toaster after a finite time. This description is then read by the reading person in a finite time, whose mind is thus directed to “look at” the abstract idea of the toaster. No invention needed whatsoever.Tristan L

    We have given more than one proof for the uncreatability of ideas. We have also given you the algorithm that you asked for, which can deterministically find the Mona Lisa and the toaster without any need for creativity whatsoever. However, you have yet to answer our rebuttal of your point.

    In your quotation of and answer to my quotation of and answer to you, you demonstrate quite nicely that you have made an unsubstantiated (and, as we have seen, false) claim about the nature of ideas without justification, and when irrefutible evidence against it is given, you simply ignore it.

    Would you please actually read what Pfhorrest and I have written and then reply to each point?
  • The Principle of Bivalence and the Law of the Excluded Middle. Please help me understand
    Yes, and that’s precisely why we look at them. If we only consider either true or false propositions, then we presuppose PB from the start, so we won’t find anything violating PB while still obeying LEM because PB is stronger than LEM. However, to see the difference between two principles, it’s best to take a look at something which obeys one but violates the other, and that’s exactly what propositions about the future do: they obey LEM but violate PB. This makes clear that LEM says that for every proposition A, we have TRUE(A v ~A), while PB makes the stronger claim that for every proposition A, we have TRUE(A) v TRUE(~A).

    You may also want to check out what I said earlier and tell me what you think.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Can you mind-read :wink:? I’m asking because you’re saying exactly what I think!
    Indeed, all ideas already exist, only waiting for minds to discover them. Here’s a proof: It’s certainly possible for two individuals, say, Alice and Bob, to come up with the same idea EID independently of each other (this happened e.g. with Newton and Leibniz independently discovering calculus). But what gives us the right to say that they have both come up with the same idea? Well, if Alice and Bob had independently invented EID, then Alice’s EID would be different from Bob’s EID, and there would be no basis whatsoever on which we could rightly say that Alice and Bob came up with the same idea EID. Therefore, Alice and Bob must have independently discovered one and the same idea EID, which is an abstract entity which always was and always will be and whose existence is independent of Alice and Bob.

    It is only on ground of both Pfhorrest and I having independently discovered the idea that ideas are abstract and cannot be made and how to show this, that it is meaningful and true that we both came up with the same idea. Like that, we can use the theory that ideas are eternal and uncreated to prove that very same theory :wink:.

    Another proof uses possibilities, which Pfhorrest already mentioned. It runs thus: For every idea EID that anyone can come up with, the possibility that someone can come up with EID must have always existed. But since this possibility is essentially tied to EID itseld, EID must also always have existed. I used a very similar argument with the same idea some years ago on another forum to show that coming into existence and going out of existence are illusions.

    It would be possible in principle to set out on a deterministic process of mechanically identifying every possible ideaPfhorrest

    For example like this: Write a program that systematically outputs all possible finite-length strings of letters: a, b, c, ..., z, aa, ab, ..., az, ba, bb, bc, ..., bz, ..., ..., aaa, aab, aac, ... . For every idea EID expressible in finitely many symbols (including relativity theory, quantum mechanics, Plato’s Theory of Shapes, his unwritten Theory of Principles, the plot, theme and ideas of Hamlet, to name just a few), this program will output a description of EID after a finite amount of time. Does that mean that the mind is unneeded for finding new ideas? Certainly not, for the program doesn’t understand the meaning of the symbol-strings which it outputs. What you still need is a person (or group of people) who reads every string output by the program. The system made up of program and person (or group of people) will find every finitely describable idea after a finite time in a fully deterministic, uncreative way, independently of all other folks who might come up with the same ideas in the more traditional (and efficient) way. This shows that all the ideas must be abstract and uncreated, and it is the nail in the coffin of any claim that ideas are invented rather than discovered. It also shows that while the mind is totally needed and indispensible when finding new ideas, its creative faculty is not needed in the least; rather, what is needed is the mind’s ability to understand, to “see” ideas, and to map symbol-strings to ideas.

    I don't accept that; someone needs to come up with those ideas.Luke

    We have already shown at length that this claim is indeed false.

    What similar algorithm exists in order for us to "discover" the supposedly pre-existing ideas of the Mona Lisa or the toaster?Luke

    We have already given concrete examples of such algorithms. The Mona Lisa is made up of finitely many atoms; hence, my algorithm will spit out a complete description of the Mona Lisa after a finite time. The same goes for the toaster – the algorithm will spit out a complete and accurate description of the toaster after a finite time. This description is then read by the reading person in a finite time, whose mind is thus directed to “look at” the abstract idea of the toaster. No invention needed whatsoever.
  • The Principle of Bivalence and the Law of the Excluded Middle. Please help me understand
    Why should they be? They are propositions like others, and they neatly show the difference between LEM and PB since the former applies to them but the latter doesn't.

    I think that one should give up truth-functionality, the (imho false) principle that the truth-values of individual propositions always set the truth-value of compound propositions "built up" from them. In fact, in any truth-functional three-valued logic where LEM, the Law of the Idempotence of Disjunction (LID, (A v A = A)), and the Law of the Evenness of Undeterminedness with respect to Negation (LEUN, (UNDETERMINED(A) = UNDETERMINED(~A))) hold true, PB can be derived like so:

    For every propostion A with truth-value U (undetermined), we have:
    1. UNDETERMINED(A) by premise
    2. UNDETERMINED(~A) from (1.) by LEUN
    3. TRUE(A v ~A) by LEM
    4. UNDETERMINED(A v A) from (1.) by LID.
    Thus, if we set B := ~A, C := A, and D := A, we have that A and B are both undetermined but their disjunction is true, whereas C and D are also both undetermined but their disjunction is undetermined rather than true. Thus, the logic isn't truth-functional if there is a proposition A with truth-value U, that is to say, if it is truth-functional, then each proposition is either true or false (PB holds).

    Instead of LID and LEM, we can also use the Law of the Idempotence of Conjunction (LIC, (A AND A = A)) and the Law of Not-Contradiction (LNC, ~(A AND ~A)).

    That's why I'm in favor of a three-valued logic which isn't truth-functional.
  • The Principle of Bivalence and the Law of the Excluded Middle. Please help me understand


    Actually, I think not. If p = (it will rain tomorrow), then (p v ~p) is true today because of LEM, but (TRUE(p) v TRUE(~p)) is not true and even untrue (false) today since today, neither p nor ~p is true because the future isn't forechosen. This counter-example shows that the truth-operator doesn't in general distribute over disjunction. Indeed, (TRUE(p) v TRUE(~p)) is a stronger proposition than TRUE(p v ~p). This parallels probability theory, where (P(A)=1 v P(COMPLEMENT(A))=1) (which is only true for rather boring events A) is stronger than (P(A UNION COMPLEMENT(A)) = 1) (which always holds true).
  • The Principle of Bivalence and the Law of the Excluded Middle. Please help me understand


    As I understand it, PB states that there are only two (bivalence) truth values viz. true and falseTheMadFool

    Right.

    the LEM states that (p v ~p) [...]TheMadFool

    Also right, and since it is a law, it states that this is true.

    [...] which simply means that given a proposition, either the proposition itself is true or its negation is true.TheMadFool

    Actually no, if my understanding is right. The proposition (p v ~p) is weaker than the proposition (TRUE(p) v TRUE(~p)) since stating the truth TRUE(A) of a proposition A is strogner than just stating the proposition A itself. The same is true in probability theory; (E UNION COMPLEMENT(E)) always has a probability of 1 (LEM holds), but ((E has probability 1) OR (COMPLEMENT(E) has likelihood 1)) is sometimes false (PB fails).

    Indeed, you're assuming PB when you regard A and TRUE(A) as equivalent, which you're doing in your interpretation of LEM.
  • The Principle of Bivalence and the Law of the Excluded Middle. Please help me understand


    Not really, I think. While you've understood PB rightly, your version of LEM is too strong, for it's simply another way to state PB. That's because falsehood is the same as truth of the negation. In truth, LEM only states that A OR NOT(A) is always true, while it is PB which states that either A is true or NOT(A) is true. In probability theory,
    - PB is the statement that each event is either certain or impossible, which is false except when the probability space is trivial,
    - while LEM is the statement that the union of any event with its complement is certain, which is always true.
  • Surreal Numbers. Eh?
    Also, as I understand it, the surreals are the biggest possible ordered setPfhorrest

    But aren't the surreals a proper class rather than a set?
  • Is negation the same as affirmation?

    Difference is the negation of sameness, isn’t it? The issue at hand is that if negation is the same as affirmation, then even if you say that negation is different from affirmation (th.i. that negation is not the same as affirmation), you just say that negation is the same as affirmation.

    in other words, when we say something is the same as something else, we do not necessarily also mean that the thing "affirms" something else.PuerAzaelis
    Yes, that’s true. For example, when we say that 2+3 is the same as 5, we don’t mean that 2+3 affirms 5. That wouldn’t even make sense. But what does this have to do with Alice and Bob’s thing?

    Since this is so it is not necessarily true to say that affirmation "negates" negation. it doesn't affirm or negate anything, it is just not the same as it.PuerAzaelis
    Yes, affirmation itself doesn’t negate negation itself anymore than 2+7 negates 5. How does this resolve the issue?
    Regarding your last clause, Bob would say, “You rightly negate the sameness of affirmation and negation. Since affirmation and negation are the same, you’re just affirming the sameness of affirmation and negation.”
  • Is negation the same as affirmation?

    one [world] that follows the rules of logic as it's been for thousands of yearsTheMadFool
    Let’s call this “Alice’s world”.
    one [world] that is your ownTheMadFool
    Let’s call this “Bob’s world”.

    Your argument isn't circular and also circular in the world that you've created which is both something that fascinates me and also confuses me.TheMadFool
    I feel exactly the same; I’m fascinated and confused by the whole matter, which is why I came hither.

    I agree with what you say, and I’m happy that I’m not the only one who sees the matter like that. Bob cannot force Alice to come into his world. Surprisingly, however, Alice can’t philosophically force Bob to come into her world, either. That’s what I meant when I said that Bob has something which in a way is better than all arguments; it is worse than an argument in that it can’t force Alice to come into Bob’s world, but it’s better than an argument in that Alice can’t even grip Bob, let alone pull him out of his world into hers.

    The would-be assassin’s question corresponds to Alice’s asking her brother whether he wants her to slap him. I think that only in this not-philosophical way can she hope to force Bob to leave his world. Like you, I’m very skeptical of Bob’s world because of that would-be assassin and similar issues. Fascinatingly, however, there still remains the possibility that all really is one, in which case one would continue to live even after having been shot dead, so one wouldn’t have to fear the would-be assassin.

    We shouldn’t forget, though, that what you and I have just said about the whole matter, including
    This situation, I realize, has no resolution since the two systems you and I are operating in are mutually incompatibleTheMadFool
    is itself a description which is true only in Alice’s world. In Alice’s world, it it true that Alice’s world and Bob’s world are two different and incompatible worlds, that there is no resolution, and that neither twin can force the other into his/her world, a.s.o. In Bob’s world, however, it is true that Alice’s world and Bob’s world are one and the same (and then obviously self-compatible) world, that there is a resolution, and that both twins already are in that one world, a.s.o. Even the description expressed in these last sentences is only a description from Alice’s point of view, a.s.o. to infinity, as is what is expressed by this very sentence.

    Fear not, though :smile:, I’m still standing firmly in Alice’s world, which you can see from my other forum posts (e.g. where I insist that some infinite cardinalities are NOT the same as others).
  • Mathjax Tutorial (Typeset Logic Neatly So That People Read Your Posts)
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  • Is negation the same as affirmation?
    I had forgotten one major goal of mine. Let’s recall what Charlie said in my second major comment in this thread.
    “Let me think,” said Charlie and thought for a while. Then he said, “I think that everything boils down to the problem of the definition of negation. It seems that such a definition is not possible; I’m afraid that if someone doesn’t have intuitive, not-verbal knowledge of what negation is, including that it’s not the same as affirmation, then you can’t tell them what it is. Alice, since your brother is so clever as to claim not to have such intuitive knowledge, it’s likely best for you to just let him go.”Tristan L
    The major goal I had forgotten was to show that if someone doesn’t have intuitive, not-verbal knowledge of what negation is, including that it’s not the same as affirmation, then it’s hopeless to teach them what negation is. So, that intuitive knowledge is crucial. It is also something very interesting.
  • Is negation the same as affirmation?

    This claim by his apologists is of course belated and half-heartedbongo fury
    No. From the start, I meant Bob to use PSAN thoroughly on all meta-levels. The proof is that in my starter post, Bob already said that negation is the same as affirmation. What he meant was general, absolute negation and affirmation, which naturally includes negation and affirmation on all meta-levels. This is shown by him applying PSAN to not(yes=no) itself. As I’ve said, I had already come up with universal PSAN years ago. So, my apology for Bob is in fact much older than this thread (and my tale of Alice and Bob), and it is full-hearted.

    It’s just that I never regarded Alice and Bob’s conversation as a mere language game, so I didn’t pay much attention to quotation, disquotation or other linguistic things. That’s why I needlessly insisted that Bob hadn’t mis-quoted Alice since I didn’t think it very important. However, I never meant that he wouldn’t dare to, only that he hadn’t done so yet. Again as I said, I had the monism linked to PSAN in mind years ago, and if all is one, then in particular all sentences are one and the same sentence. So, Bob would obviously dare to mis-quote if he is a PSAN-kind monist.

    Regarding my interest in things deeper than language, I am directly interested in the equivalence or not-equivalence of propositions. Of course, that a sentence has a certain meaning is also a proposition. So, I’m also interested in what sentences mean, but only as a subset of my interest in propositions. For example, the sentence S “There are odd perfect numbers” means the proposition A that there are odd perfect numbers, and that the sentence T “There are no odd perfect numbers” means the proposition not(A) that there aren’t any odd perfect numbers. I’m interested in whether or not A is equivalent to not(A). Whether or not S means the same thing as T is a consequence thereof. Of course, I’m also interested in whether or not the proposition B that S means not(A) is equivalent to the generally accepted proposition not(B) that S doesn’t mean not(A). Both equivalences – the equivalence of the zeroth-order propositions A and not(A) and of the first-order propositions B and not(B) – follow from Bob’s general, univeral PSAN. So, whether Bob says

    “(S means A) and (T means not(A)) and (A = not(A))”

    or

    “(not(B) [that S doesn’t mean not(A)]) and (T means not(A)) and (not(B) = B)”

    is up to him; both allow him to infer that S and T have the same meaning. He can even say that (S is not the same as T) = (S is the same as T) and that therefore, S and T are one and the same sentence.

    However, even if you are only interested in language games, Bob’s approach still works. He can use PSAN to replace any word of negation with the corresponding word of affirmation in any sentence at all, and that obviously includes sentences about other sentences. For example, he can say

    “The Sun is not a galaxy. Therefore, by PSAN, the Sun is a galaxy.”

    He can just as well say

    “Alice did not say ‘xyz’. Thus, by PSAN, Alice said ‘xyz’.”

    It would be unnatural for him if he dared to say the first but not the second.

    they [Bob's apologists] wanted to insinuate a continuity between sense and nonsense.bongo fury
    No, neither Charlie nor I did. From the start, my purpose has been to show that if someone chooses to be a radical PSAN-kind monist, no-one can philosophically force him to abandon it. Also, I wanted to show that everyone, including you and me, is free to choose PSAN-kind monism if they like. I never meant Bob to be a sophist. I only invented the introductory tale to liven things up. I could just as well have started showing that radical monism cannot be defeated since it is compatible with its opposite, but that would likely have been drier.

    [sophism and monism] Arguably the same thing.bongo fury
    Charlie: “Now you’re beginning to sound like Bob :wink:.”

    Point words indiscriminately and they point at everything (and nothing).bongo fury
    Charlie: “If all is one, then all words are one word pointing at everything, and that is one thing – the one thing there is. I’m ernestly thinking about becoming a PSAN-monist. As an experiment, I’ll go into PSAN-mode under the name ‘Charlenides’. Unlike Bob, I’m not mischievous, and I’m always going to say when I’m speaking (such as now) and when Charlenides is speaking.”

    Charlenides: “Ernestly think about what if the Form of Negation, th.i. no-ness itself, is the same as the Form of Affirmation, yes-ness itself. Mind you that each meta-level negation is only the restriction to (a subdomain of the class of all propositions) of true, absolute negation, which is a unary logical operator on the class of all – really all – propositions. The same goes for affirmation. I believe in PSAN: I hold that yes-ness is the same as no-ness. I apply PSAN to any proposition as I please, which includes anything meant by something which you say, and any proposition about the meaning of what you say. Thus, I get that one proposition which is everything and can have peace of mind. Also, I’m not troubled by all the antinomies which may give you sleepless nights – Liar, Berry, Burali-Forti, Cantor, and Russel, of course. It’s obvious that there is the property E of being a property that does not have itself. Many are troubled by the fact that (E has E) if and only if (E doesn’t have E), but for me, that contradiction is simply the proposition that E has E. Do you see how wonderful my mind life is?”

    No, in applying the rule he needs to compromise, and suggest coherent reference to utterances, otherwise he can't introduce contradictions in any hope of impressing as a sophist, i.e. as feigning inference and not mere nonsense.bongo fury
    As soon as he compromises, he can be attacked, and you have shown that. It is obvious that if you have normal meta-negation, you can easily meta-negate the sameness of object-affirmation and object-negation. What intrigued be from the beginning, and is the reason for which I started this thread, is that applying PSAN radically on all meta-levels leads to something remarkable – not a paradox, but even weirder than a paradox in my opinion.

    Charlenides: “He does coherently refer to uttrances, for all uttereances are one and the same utterance, and to that utterance he always refers. All the contradictions that he introduces are one and the same proposition – THE proposition. What Bob is doing all the time is rightly inferring that one proposition from itself.”

    Charlie: “I, for one, was impressed precisely because Bob seemingly doesn’t practice sophistry, but may very well be a PSAN-monist.”

    I disagree. Rights (like reference) are inferred from practice.bongo fury
    Theoretically speaking, incomplete induction is not a valid form of inference, and no mathematician would accept an argument based on incomplete induction.
    Practically speaking, your opinion could land you in trouble. For example, you might repeatedly infringe on sombody’s rights, but that person forgives you each time. One day, however, they decide to sue you because what you do is too much. Then the court would not accept your statement, “They never sued me before, so they can’t sue me now.”
    However, I concede that we must use incomplete induction in real life.
    In our case, Bob made clear that he can apply PSAN universally when he said that yes = no. He can’t show that for each class of propositions individually. For example, he hasn’t used it on any biological proposition yet (such as “All lions are big cats. Therefore, by PSAN, some lions are no big cats.”), but would you infer therefrom that he wouldn’t dare to?

    trying to define negation — Tristan L

    1) As a word's (or other symbol's) happening not [Tristan’s italics] to point at an object

    2) As some corresponding negative's (or antonym's) [Tristan’s italics] happening to point at the object
    bongo fury
    There, you’re using negation to define negation.

    I think you [Alice] are unwise to suggest you are having a meaningful agreement or disagreement with Bob about anything. You may as well just treat him as a non-speaker of the language, who fails to observe basic distinctions of meaning.bongo fury
    Alice: “Yes, I think that you’re right. Moreover, it’s likely not possible to philosophically or intellectually force Bob to abandon his PSAN. The same applies to Charlenides. However, I got the idea of solving this gordian knot by using Bob’s PSAN to allow me to punish him for manipulating my phone. You see, in our family, my brother or I can only be punished after we’ve been forced to finally admit that we’re in the wrong. Bob, however, always used PSAN to say ‘I’m in the wrong. Therefore, I’m in the right.’ So now I’m using PSAN to get Bob to allow me to slap him (not necessarily as punishment). This practical, not-philosophical method will likely make Bob willingly abandon PSAN.”

    Charlenides: “Since failing to observe is the same as observing (remember that all is one), you rightly say that Bob observes all basic distinctions of meaning – th.i. none, for all words are one word with one meaning.”

    Now I ask the fundamental question: What if PSAN really is true, and all things really are one?