• Shared Meaning
    I’m not good with mixing poetic language with analytic philosophy. I like to keep them separate.Noah Te Stroete

    When doing analytic philosophy, it is always good to avoid metaphor whenever and wherever possible. As long as one can still convey one's meaning.

    Poetry operates by virtue of the same internal mechanisms at work. All attribution of meaning consists of the very same three necessary elemental constituents... poetic meaning notwithstanding.
  • Shared Meaning


    Sorry Noah, I'm not familiar with it. Got a rough outline?
  • Shared Meaning
    Not all meaning is literal.
  • Shared Meaning
    Two participants are having an online debate. The loser doesn't know that s/he has pulled the shortest straw. They're on the short end of the stick. The future does not seem too promising. S/he has no clue. The winner could put forth a well-crafted argument grounded upon common sense understanding and nail the coffin shut right after cutting the loser off at the knees by showing that their position was based upon false ground.
  • Shared Meaning
    The pen can do all of the above.
    — creativesoul

    Huh? What do you mean? Serious question.
    Noah Te Stroete

    Rhetorically, metaphorically, allegorically, etc...

    We are talking about meaning here.
  • Shared Meaning
    So if there is some "external" thing being 'shared' then why isn't it preserved through translation.Isaac

    Meaning is not properly accounted for in such terms. There are external things that become both sign and symbol. There are external things that become significant, symbolic and/or symbolized. There are also internal things that become so. All things that become sign, symbol, significant, symbolized, and/or symbolic exist in their entirety prior to becoming a part of the meaningful correlation drawn between different things; prior to their being a part of the correlation itself.


    I'd say it's more like a process, than an extant thing.

    I would concur that the attribution of meaning is a process.
  • Shared Meaning
    We use language for many things. It is a tool. All tools are extensions of ourselves in some perfectly sensible, and thus rightfully applicable, manner. A hammer becomes an extension of the user's arm, as does the saw. The saw is used as a means to cut things into smaller pieces. The hammer is used to drive nails. The pen can do all of the above.

    A pen without thought/belief has no user. It's just a pen.

    The meaning of the pen is always determined by the connections drawn between it and something else. The meaning of the X, follows the above. Always. I've let X be "the pen". Let X be whatever you like.

    The pen shares one's own thought/belief. All thought/belief is meaningful. The pen shares one's own meaning. This sharing of meaning comes in the form of thought/belief statements. However, what is attempted to be shared is not always well-received. Sometimes the listener draws correlations between the language use and something else... something other than the speaker. That is case of misattributing meaning.

    The pen is a tool that is used for all sorts of things. Sometimes it's use results in mistakes that the user is completely and totally unaware of.

    What are the grounds upon which one denies that meaning is the sort of thing that can be shared?

    A composite is a thing.
  • Ancient Texts
    There are certain grammatical rules understood by linguistics that can help us differentiate between a string of random squiggles and an actual language.I like sushi

    This is an interesting claim, given that there is no universal syntax, grammar, nor form that all currently spoken and/or otherwise understood languages follow.

    On what ground could one claim that what they are looking at is not language, when talking about ancient marks?
  • Ancient Texts
    Another thing is a “dead text” can still be recognised as a text. There are certain grammatical rules understood by linguistics that can help us differentiate between a string of random squiggles and an actual language. If we know that some markings are from a language, or a means to communicate/express some thought/idea, then archeological terms it provides information. The intent of the author may be lost for ever, yet the intent can be reasonably assumed or they’d be no markings (of course they could be accidental, but certain marking ae highly unlikely - impossible - to be accidental).

    Maybe you’d be better off expressing to me what you think the connection between information and meaning is?
    I like sushi

    Ok. Some markings are from a language. Granted. You say that the text provides information. Sure. You say that the intent of the author may be lost forever, sure... maybe. I can go with that. I would grant that the author had intent.

    So what?

    It does not follow from this that the text is still meaningful.
  • Ancient Texts
    What sorts of things can be meaningful and what makes them so?

    Language use is meaningful. That covers everything ever spoken, written, and/or otherwise uttered. What makes all language use meaningful? Well, there's quite a bit that does. There are all sorts of different kinds of meaningful language use. The differences here, just as the differences in notions of "meaning" aren't helpful for the task at hand. They all set out different kinds of meaning. The question - of course - is what sorts of things can be meaningful and what makes them so? Different sorts of language use can be meaningful. Different kinds of meaning are expressed and/or shared with different kinds of language use.

    What makes them all meaningful?
  • Ancient Texts


    Huh?

    :worry:
  • Ancient Texts
    So the current question is what sorts of things can be meaningful and what makes them so?

    I'm happy to accept each and every notion of "meaning" here. What makes them meaningful? Certainly they all are. I would posit that it is the same thing that makes anything and everything meaningful that is so.

    You see, there's a bit of common sense here. While there is no doubt that there are several different competing conceptions/notions of "meaning", some of which are negations of others and/or are otherwise incommensurate/incompatible with one another, they are all still meaningful.

    From this, we can certainly surmise that being meaningful is not a mere matter of definition.
  • Ancient Texts
    Information presupposes meaning.creativesoul
  • Ancient Texts


    You don't really think that para-consistency will work out here do you?

    :kiss:

    If you're here as a sparring partner... thanks!
  • Ancient Texts


    Mirror mirror...

    The existential question was already answered...

    Which one was not that you want to be?
  • Ancient Texts
    And please, give your mumbo jumbo a rest. I am not the only one who is sick of it.S

    Well my good man... Ya know, it's not like you're being physically restrained against your will, arms and legs securely bound, eyelids propped open by toothpicks, sat in front of the computer screen, and forced to do whatever it is that you think you're doing here...
  • Ancient Texts


    Which question? I left several unanswered. You and I may find productive(or at least interesting) dialogue concerning "meaning is use". You may be surprised that I reject that as written here. There is no equivalence.
  • Ancient Texts
    How can we have a sensible discussion about what sort of things can be meaningful and what makes them so, without analysing what is meant by that?S

    Do you not already know what that means?

    :yikes:

    I'd be more than happy to discuss what sorts of things can be meaningful and what makes them so.
  • Ancient Texts
    I'm proposing that any and all texts written in language that is completely and totally devoid of users is utterly meaningless.
    — creativesoul

    This depends on your definition...
    S

    No. It doesn't. It depends upon what sorts of things can be meaningful and what makes them so. Meaning is prior to language. That which is prior to language is not existentially dependent upon it. Definitions are. Definitions of that which exists prior to language can be wrong.
  • Ancient Texts
    Meaning is existentially dependent upon information or information is existentially dependent upon meaning? Explain whatever you mean as best you can then I’ll disagree.I like sushi

    Why would I bother?

    You've disagreed with several true claims already.
  • Ancient Texts
    You’ve said something obvious. We all agree that we cannot know something we cannot know. We cannot know the meaning of something we cannot know the meaning of. That is not an “argument”.I like sushi

    You're conflating products of your imagination with my words. More of the same. Red herring. Non-sequitur. Strawman. Etc...
  • Ancient Texts
    ...Meaning is not a concept to be given ostensively. The ostenisive giving is the expression of information which provides a shared objective meaning through language.I like sushi

    Information presupposes meaning.


    ...Another thing is a “dead text” can still be recognised as a text. There are certain grammatical rules understood by linguistics that can help us differentiate between a string of random squiggles and an actual language. If we know that some markings are from a language, or a means to communicate/express some thought/idea, then archeological terms it provides information.I like sushi

    Then all of archeology presupposes that they have meaningful information. I'm refuting the very idea.

    All you can infer is that it was a language and it was meaningful to the speakers. If you know what sorts of things can be meaningful and how they become so, then you'd also know that what I'm proposing is true.


    The intent of the author may be lost for ever, yet the intent can be reasonably assumed or they’d be no markings (of course they could be accidental, but certain marking ae highly unlikely - impossible - to be accidental).I like sushi

    Granted. We can most certainly conclude that it was a language used by a community.
  • Ancient Texts
    ...Maybe you’d be better off expressing to me what you think the connection between information and meaning is?I like sushi

    One is existentially dependent upon the other, but not the other way around.
  • Ancient Texts
    We had this...

    I’m NOT arguing. How can I when I’ve no idea what you are proposing?
    — I like sushi

    Fair enough. Pardon my argumentative posture.

    I'm proposing that any and all texts written in language that is completely and totally devoid of users is utterly meaningless.
    creativesoul

    Followed by this...

    No need to “propose”. Just say it. We speak English and understand what that means. If you don’t know what this means I’ll tell you. It means “we cannot find meaning in something we cannot find”. Again, obvious.I like sushi

    Red herring. Poisoning the well. Non-sequitur.

    Unacceptable. Discard.


    As to the issue of “meaning” you appear to be conflating this with “information”. That is probably what is causing us to talk past each other.

    I'm all ears. Show me how you understand my position better than I. During this demonstration be sure to use my arguments and show how they only lead to the conclusion that you've arrived at.
  • Ancient Texts
    I’m under no illusion that there is ‘the meaning’ of my words that persists through time. Whenever I interact with the words I wrote, there is meaning in that interaction, and a sense of continuity between that meaning and the ‘original meaning’ when I wrote it, seen as a relationship. When you interact with the same words, there is potentially a different meaning as a different relationship, and I can only approach your meaning by interacting with the way you then express your relationship with the words, within the context of what I understand about the English language, about this thread discussion and what little I understand about you - just as you can better approach the ‘original meaning’ by interacting with the context of the English language, etc and what you understand about me (eg. what else I have written in this thread).Possibility

    I would agree with this in general. What interests me most here is thoroughly unpacking the bit about the interacting with words. It's within what you call interactions with words, perhaps, that I believe there is common ground to be found.

    Have you changed your mind about meaning persisting through time?

    It's quite a nuanced process to grasp, but it does not have any issue at all with accomodating changes in the meaning of the same signs/symbols. The evolution of meaning and meaning persisting through time are not mutually exclusive. It can be and I'm certain that both happen and they do so by virtue of the very same process.


    The words persist through time (also debatable as a digital entity), but meaning is found in each interaction with those words. If you talk about persistence of meaning, then you run into assumptions that this meaning exists as an entity instead of a dynamic relationship. I get that you understand what you mean, but it’s not always coming across as clearly as it appears in your mind. I don’t expect anyone to understand what I’m talking about just because I wrote it down.Possibility

    Fair enough. However, here you point towards the possibility of assuming that meaning exists as an entity as a result(?) of talking about the persistence of meaning through time. In the sentence just prior to that, however, you talked about "meaning is found". To me, that most certainly presupposes that meaning is the sort of thing that can be found. If finding is discovering, and all things discovered exist in their entirety prior to their discovery, then any meaning that is found must already exist in it's entirety, prior to it's discovery.

    Although I do not find it helpful. It seems rather unnecessary. I would not entirely balk at that notion. But again, that is a very nuanced understanding, and on my view there is no meaning to be found unless the correlations have already been drawn, and are still currently being drawn.
  • Ancient Texts
    I’m NOT arguing. How can I when I’ve no idea what you are proposing?I like sushi

    Fair enough. Pardon my argumentative posture.

    I'm proposing that any and all texts written in language that is completely and totally devoid of users is utterly meaningless.

    The gist I’ve read is that someone writes a text (therefore the act has meaning to them). All the people die and the language dies with them. The meaning is lost.I like sushi

    That's close enough.


    From here you could argue about the actual existence of “meaning” (by which I assume you mean “stored information”?), but it doesn’t really matter. The information is lost and it would seem impossible to recover - in which case we’d infer some hidden meaning but never be able to know one way or another.

    That’s my best guess as to what you mean. Amend/confirm if you can.

    That's fairly accurate. However, it's the notion of "meaning" that I'm working from that is of utmost importance here.
  • Ancient Texts


    I suggest you click on my avatar. Click on comments, and take a bit of your precious time to learn about what you are arguing against. It would very foolish of you to assume I've not already done everything you've said ought be done, and more...

    Help yourself.

    We could always take this to the appropriate place. I mean, if you want a real debate, I'm down.
  • Ancient Texts
    The historical is important. Prehistory is the issue because we tend to assume too much without written evidence/varification...I like sushi

    What “false dichotomy”? You appeared not to know the difference between “history” and “pre-history” so I told you. It is something anyone who knows a reasonable amount anout history and archeology should know. Understand you’re saying something equivalent to the differentiation between “the bronze age” and “the iron age” is a false dichotomy.I like sushi

    I knew the difference. I also knew that that difference made no difference. I called it a "false dichotomy" as a result of having no difference that mattered but being put out there as though one were an issue and the other was not. Both history and pre-history are prone to the assumptions that you claimed were a problem with only the one. That is irrelevant. However, I'm open to being shown otherwise.

    I do wonder if I called this by the wrong name. I don't think that false dichotomy fits. False analogy maybe? Red herring, certainly.

    Why are you stating the obvious by saying if we cannot find meaning in something it has no meaning to us?I like sushi

    I didn't say that.

    I have carefully re-read our exchange. I think that I understand what you're saying about my use of "ancient text". You claim that "ancient text" presupposes something lost. This is an irrelevant quibble. I'm open to be shown otherwise. It certainly presupposes that it was meaningful to users of it's language. That is readily granted without prejudice.
  • Ancient Texts


    Of course, you are still faced with the meaning of your own words in this thread persisting through time as well... Outright denial doesn't make any sense at all in light of that.
  • Ancient Texts


    That sort of thinking will impede you. Definitions can be wrong. There is a difference between 'just asserting' a definition and arguing for one. Apparently, you do no see the relevance of justificatory strength either, and all that that involves...

    Put down the axe. There are no proper grinding stones around here.
  • Ancient Texts


    The bit with you began by you using a false dichotomy between history and pre-history. The general point is that an ancient totally unfamiliar text is meaningless if all it's users have perished. As a result, there is no ability to decipher one if that's all that is had. That is the thrust of the OP and the arguments/reasoning in support.

    Have you read my parts in this thread?
  • Ancient Texts
    Another aspect of a single text having starkly different meaning...

    "John, could you close the door on your way out?"

    That question can have very different meaning depending upon the situation in which it is said. We all know this to be true. Intonation alone... We all use English. We all understand English. Despite that much, we could still get the meaning of the question quite wrong if all we have is the written text. It would be a result of not having enough of what it takes to get it right.

    What this shows is that written language use alone isn't enough... It is most certainly necessary.
  • Ancient Texts
    This is what happens when you make a statement or assertion in this forum, too. The original meaning of your statement exists only in your subjective relationship with what you wrote. You cannot assume that it persists anywhere else, let alone that anyone reading it would understand your meaning as ‘the meaning’ simply because the markings you’ve used to communicate it are regularly in use today. So when they query what you wrote, you can’t just refer back to what you wrote as if ‘the meaning’ is inherent in the markings themselves. You need to give more information about the subjective experience behind what you wrote. You need to offer more context. Otherwise they attribute their own meaning to what you wrote, or dismiss it as nonsense.Possibility

    Meaning does not have a location. To talk of meaning persisting 'anywhere' is wrong minded.

    That said, the above isn't entirely wrong. The additional information spoken of above is sometimes necessary to ensure that the meaning is shared. That we understand one another.

    Linguistic meaning persists through time by virtue of a plurality of people drawing the same correlations between different things, with at least one of those things being language use.
  • Ancient Texts
    I think we can agree that meaning of the same marks, signs, and symbols changes through time and different use. The scare-quotes are no longer necessary. The meaning of a text is determined by the users of the language. That meaning can persist through time even if there are more than one(accepted in practice) use for the marks, even if the marks are correlated to different things than the original users. The original meaning, however, could not persist if no one correlated the marks to the same things at all. The same holds good of all common use.
    — creativesoul

    Clearly the scare-quotes are necessary, as you continue to assert that meaning can persist through time, when I’ve already explained why it doesn’t. There is a difference between continuity of meaning and persistent meaning - the original meaning does not persist, it cannot persist because of the nature of meaning. Once the text is created, all we have are relationships between the text within context (including the author’s subjective experience) and ourselves within context.
    Possibility

    You've set out a distinction between persistent meaning and the continuity of meaning, whereas the former is unequivocally denied. That outright denial follows from your notion/conception of meaning which you're confident accounts for and/or is applicable to all examples of meaning as indicated by the mention of "the nature of meaning" in addition to the line of reasoning offered in support of that. So, if I understand you rightly, then "the nature of meaning" is explained and/or exemplified by it's continuity, and because of that, meaning cannot persist through time.

    Do you agree that the meaning of the same marks, signs, and symbols changes through time with different use?



    When we talk about meaning persisting, we mistakenly assume that we can extract the original meaning of some texts but not others, when the best we can do is approach it by understanding (often by imagining) the context of the author’s experience.

    This is what happens when you make a statement or assertion in this forum, too. The original meaning of your statement exists only in your subjective relationship with what you wrote. You cannot assume that it persists anywhere else, let alone that anyone reading it would understand your meaning as ‘the meaning’ simply because the markings you’ve used to communicate it are regularly in use today. So when they query what you wrote, you can’t just refer back to what you wrote as if ‘the meaning’ is inherent in the markings themselves. You need to give more information about the subjective experience behind what you wrote. You need to offer more context. Otherwise they attribute their own meaning to what you wrote, or dismiss it as nonsense.
    Possibility

    One who unequivocally denies that meaning can persist through time doesn't talk about what it takes, for if they do they arrive at incoherence/equivocation/self-contradiction. It's also bad form(at best) and/or fallacious(at worst) for an author to talk in terms of "we" when s/he is not of the group. The group, in this instance, consists of those who argue for and thus talk about the persistence of meaning. I am one of that group, and I'm perfectly capable of making my own arguments. When I talk about meaning persisting, I do not talk in terms of 'extracting' meaning because that would be to presuppose that meaning was the sort of thing that can be extracted - in some complete 'form' or another - from only a text. It's not, ancient texts notwithstanding.

    May I suggest that you re-read what I've argued for(and against) here, because much of your disagreement rests upon something other than what I've been arguing?



    How does this relate to the ancient text? Well, an ancient text, like all texts, does not stand alone - it exists in context. So it is only potentially meaningless if we are ignorant of context - of the relationships it has with anything and everything we experience and interact with today - not just the language. As long as we can relate to the context surrounding a text, we can begin to approach the original meaning, to imagine it and strive to understand it - although only the author could ever really ‘know’ it. This is not necessarily because it is ancient and the original users of the language are all dead. It’s difficult to assume the original meaning even of a modern text, if we cannot relate to its context.Possibility

    In the beginning of your reply you said, and I quote, "Once the text is created, all we have are relationships between the text within context (including the author’s subjective experience) and ourselves within context." You've now brought that claim to bear in what's directly above; full circle, as it were. That claim is dubious. There are a number of possible scenarios regarding text creation.

    The issue here is the very notion of context that you're employing as a means to account for meaning.

    Meaning is determined by the language users drawing correlations between the text and other things. The context is the other things. The language users no longer exist. The other things may or may not. The correlations drawn by the users between the text and the other things no longer exist. We do not have the context of an ancient text. The context is gone.

    Saying "an ancient text, like all texts, does not stand alone - it exists in context" is false, unless you're talking about the context involving us and the text. That's utterly irrelevant.
  • Ancient Texts
    You used the word “text”. If you call something a “text” then you’re saying it is a “text”. Don’t blame me for your lack of clarity.I like sushi

    Lack of clarity?

    It's a text. Texts are in language. Languages are meaningful to their users. Ancient texts were meaningful to their users.

    How much clearer can it be said?


    You are presupposing something lost by calling it a “text”. If not then you’re saying little more than “this text is not a text”. At best you could say this is not a text it is a pseudo-text.

    What I can say - at best - is what follows from my argument, not yours. You offered two choices. Both were in quotes. Neither accurately represents my arguments. Both say something I have not and would not.


    Surely you can follow my thinking here?

    Your line of thinking here is a summation, and quite the mistaken one at that, of my own.
  • Ancient Texts
    “Either way” is miselading how? I simply said squiggles or not there is physical presence (therefore an archeological artifact).I like sushi

    You gave two choices. Those were contained within quotation marks. I said neither.
  • Ancient Texts
    You used the word “text”. If you call something a “text” then you’re saying it is a “text”. Don’t blame me for your lack of clarity.

    You are presupposing something lost by calling it a “text”. If not then you’re saying little more than “this text is not a text”. At best you could say this is not a text it is a pseudo-text.

    Surely you can follow my thinking here? If I miss your point assume for a second it may be due to the manner in which you’ve presented it and not just the manner in which I am reading it.
    I like sushi

    The last point was well made and well taken.
  • Ancient Texts
    ...I assume we’re dealing with an archeological artifact (manmade or orherwise - as it may have been a natural occurance). Given that it appears as a manmade product, say on sheets of hide with obviously intentional markings, we can assume it’s at the very least a representation of a writing system even if it’s a pseudo one.I like sushi

    I readily grant that it was meaningful to it's users.
  • Ancient Texts
    Either way I assume we’re dealing with an archeological artifact (manmade or orherwise - as it may have been a natural occurance). Given that it appears as a manmade product, say on sheets of hide with obviously intentional markings, we can assume it’s at the very least a representation of a writing system even if it’s a pseudo one.I like sushi

    To start a line of thinking with "either way" misleads the reader.