major parts of his philosophy is still out of harmony with today's zietgeist — Wayfarer
In the analytic quest for veritability philosophy has become so specialized that most of the subject is missing in action. — magritte
The definition of “the pious” (to hosion) depends in the first place on the definition of “the Gods” and in the second on the definition of the “divine work” (to ergon) that piety is supposed to assist. — Apollodorus
This is the true intent of the dialogue, to uphold the principle of piety whilst endowing it with a deeper, Platonic meaning. — Apollodorus
Socrates was mostly concerned with definitions - piety, justice, to name a few. — TheMadFool
When Socrates asks: "what is piety?" or "what is justice?" he is not simply asking for a dictionary definition. The question "what is X?" is the question of what it is by which we can know that in all cases something is or is not X. If we know what a triangle is then we are able to identify whether a particular figure is a triangle. If Euthyphro knows what piety itself is then he will be able to determine whether what he is about to do in the name of piety is pious or impious. If we know what justice itself is then there would be no dispute as to whether some action is just or not. — Fooloso4
What's the principle of piety? — frank
1: the quality or state of being pious: such as
a: fidelity to natural obligations (as to parents)
b: dutifulness in religion : DEVOUTNESS
2: an act inspired by piety
3: a conventional belief or standard : ORTHODOXY
It is the principle that guides our actions or standard by which we measure them.
Piety is defined by Socrates as "that which is of service to the Gods".
In everyday life, "service to the Gods" is worshiping, sacrificing, obeying the laws, observing the customs, etc.
In philosophical (Platonic) life, piety is practicing philosophy whose aim is to "become as godlike as possible" = "serving one's own God", i.e., one's own self.
In other words, "minding our own business" or attending to our divine self all the way to the final goal which is self-realization or union with the One. — Apollodorus
What use is thinking/talking/writing if we're, well, talking past each other and every disagreement we have is merely a verbal dispute as opposed to a genuine/authentic one? — TheMadFool
So you're saying the Euthyphro dilemma leads us to transform this practice in the light of the idea of justice and goodness? — frank
He thinks his obligation is to the gods, but by prosecuting his father he neglects his obligations to family and the city. — Fooloso4
Defining the term does not tell us what piety itself is, it does not tell us whether Euthyphro was acting piously. — Fooloso4
The only thing that remains in need of clarification is (a) “what is the divine?” (ti esti to theion) and (b) “what is the act or work in the accomplishment of which piety can assist?”
The answer is that (a) the divine is the nous (a key conception in Plato) and that (b) its function or “work” (to ergon) is to apprehend the Platonic ideas. — Apollodorus
That is in line with my understanding of Plato. Still can’t say if it *is* the case, but I’d sure like it to be. — Wayfarer
I’m sure the prosecution of Socrates was political, with his supposed atheism being a pretext. I’d like to read something about that too. — Wayfarer
What do you make of the theory that Socrates and Plato were connected to the Thirty, and that Socrates was sentenced to death because of that, in defense of democracy? — Olivier5
Since, as we have already seen that Plato at the time of writing the Euthyphro in all probability believed in the separate existence of Forms, the appearance that the question is left open is explained (far better, in my view) by the exigencies of the dramatic dialogue structure … “
52. See Kramer 1973; Prior 2004; Fronterotta 2007
(L. P. Gerson, From Plato to Platonism, 2013, pp. 52, 58-9)
I believe that this answers Banno's objection re aporia and I don't see any arguments presented by @Fooloso4 that would successfully challenge this. — Apollodorus
In other words, Socrates is accused of being impious. His defense is that "pious" means everything and nothing, that it cannot be defined, that it helps justify the most unjust behaviors such as Euthyphro's, and therefore that justice should not concern itself with piety. — Olivier5
This is what Prof Lloyd Gerson says on the subject:
“… we may assume that, owing to Aristotle’s testimony, Plato when he wrote Euthyphro, believed in the existence of separate Forms, even though they do not appear as such in that work — Apollodorus
Maybe I can take that. The end of Euthyphro is best understood as ironical, a tone frequently associated to Socrates. — Olivier5
He was just using Euthyphro's court case to make some other point — Apollodorus
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