Does the inescapability of bias have consequences for philosophy? And yet here you are trying to make a theory of your own -- is it your deep psychological biases that make the decision? If this is your conclusion, then what reasoning did you use? How did you reach this conclusion? — Caldwell
My conclusion comes from 2 observations:
1. It's impossible to know that we have overcome our biases because some of our biases may be unconscious.
2. Within any given topic in philosophy, there are multiple different theories, each with pros and cons. It's very rare that there is a consensus on the 'correct theory'. (Consider theories about probability, reference, causality, free will, etc.)
So, my question is what causes philosophers to disagree? My thinking is It's actually these deep, unconscious biases which are ingrained in one's mind from their genes, upbringing, life experiences, etc. If this is true, then it means that what we believe is ultimately kind of arbitrary, and based on things that happened to us that were outside our control.