What is moral? — TiredThinker
What gives us superiority over animals and the behaviors they can't break the compulsions to do? — TiredThinker
Good questions. It appears you're broaching the issue of agency (free will) vis-à-vis morality. The answer then must be obvious - we're if not truly free, more free than animals and thus morality is, not necessarily a mark of superiority, rather a heavy cross to bear.
What's interesting is animals behave morally (the harm they do is always unintended and if intended it's always out of necessity - humans condone such) while not knowing what morality is (
:chin: ) and humans behave immorally (the harm they do is sometimes intended - humans don't condone such). The paradox: Animals know nothing about morality and yet behave morally while humans know something about morality and still behave immorally. That's what's being implied by the OP.
A little learning is a dangerous thing — Alexander Pope
How do we resolve this paradox?
It's plain as the nose on your face that the acts committed by animals and humans are indistinguishable - killing, for instance, is done by both humans and animals. So, what's the difference that calls for separate judgments for a human killing (bad) and an animal killing (not bad)? The answer: knowledge of morality & free will (agency). Hence, the OP asks, "what is moral?" [knowledge of morality] and links it to animals [free will (agency)].
Are both knowledge of morality and free will equal in terms of moral significance? Does one carry more weight than the other?
Let's see how many different scenarios are possible and how each is viewed, morally speaking
1. Yes moral knowledge, Yes free will [good and bad apply]
2. Yes moral knowledge, No free will [good and bad don't apply]
3. No moral knowledge, Yes free will [ignorantia juris non excusat but then innocence] ???
4. No moral knowledge, No free will [good and bad don't apply]
As you can see there's some controversy regarding possibility 3 because the law doesn't excuse people who are ignorant of the law (bad) but, at the same time, innocence is considered a virtue (good). We need to give up one of the two, either ignorantia juris non excusat or innocence.
Which one will it be?
The difficulty arises when we assign value to moral knowledge. Instead of breaking our heads over the issue, the easiest, best (?), solution seems to be ignoring knowledge of morality completely - taking it out of the equation as it were.
Thus, the four possibilities above reduce to (moral knowledge removed because we seem to be confused, in two minds, about it)
1. Yes free will [good and bad apply]
2. No free will [good and bad don't apply]
Nothing seems out of place.
In other words,
morality is, at the end of the day, an inquiry into
free willl!
What is moral? (moral knowledge) is not important because whether you know right from wrong or not, if free will is missing, good and bad are N/A (not applicable).
Do we have free will?
As the booming voice in
Bender And God says: Possible. Probable