But I only get the mystical sort lately — ZzzoneiroCosm
Because the most vile expression a human being could do to another is sexual in nature, which has nothing to do with having sex, but violence in the severest degree. This actually might come as surprise to most of us. It's not stabbing a person 50 times, it's not stealing their life savings, it's not taking away their homes or every possessions they have -- it's sexual violence, which translates to control over another. Is it any wonder that it would manifest in swear words when at the heat of the moment, we're pissed at something?What does it say about us humans, that all our swearwords mean either a man or womans genitalia, excrement or a sexual act? — Razorback kitten
This is acceptable if another poster is asking for supporting works.Posting a link to something and saying, read this. — Jackson
But you're forgetting, relativity does not prove the big bang, it only supports some testable hypotheses. I said this in another thread, there is no proof for the big bang. Only evidence that's testable.By the way, we already know that the theory only can go so far (at the moment), since it relies on relativity for the most part. If relativity was to be falsified, then it could take big bang with it. — jorndoe
I was typing up a follow up post to mine and meant to say that people should stop cutting corners by inserting "god" as their conclusion if they want their theory to be accepted. It doesn't mean that they have to sacrifice their belief that it is god. But they have to rework their thesis if they want to be taken as scientific. I mean, they should write it so that the only logical conclusion is god (that is, if they want other thinkers to follow this conclusion). I don't know. I'm throwing some ideas here.By the way, I don't think it's in the cards that intelligent design can (ever) derive, say, the 10 commandments, that one should pray to the Sun for inspiration and atonement, that Muhammad was the (final) messenger of Allah, or whatever. That's the marked gap from these sorts of apologetics to the (elaborate) religions that have adherents. — jorndoe
Not necessarily. The big bang does not have falsification qualification, but it's scientific.For intelligent design to become a scientific model, there would have to be falsification criteria, the more the better. — jorndoe
Good point of contention. In math, there is a point at which we cannot determine an exact answer to a problem due to the enormity of the amount for which we don't have the proper device to calculate -- at least not yet. I forget the terminology they use. But, maybe @jgill knows something.The most common objection to ID seems to be that it does not produce any testable hypothesis, and thus is “outside” of science (thus perhaps it would better be argued in a philosophy class). However, what bothers me about this is if science must be testable, then much of cosmology would also be considered inappropriate for a science classroom (no multiverses, no accounts for natural laws-all those would similarly be outside of science and therefore not belong in a science classroom either). — Paulm12
I discovered that I was struggling understanding this thread because of Streetlight's incorrect attribution of what makes capitalism a capitalism. And I'm not wavering from it. I made my point and if you disagree with it, then I agree that you disagree.I brought up Marx because he is a well known observer of capitalism, which is what this thread is about. You said you were struggling with understanding this thread. I think one reason could be that you’re unfamiliar with certain analyses of capitalism upon which much of this thread takes for granted. — Xtrix
Could you tell me why that is surprising to you? Why should I be thinking about marxism in this thread? It's not an economic system, just so you know.The fact that you weren't thinking of it was my point, really. — Xtrix
Why would this be?If anything an education in this matter, on average, would make it harder to understand this thread. — Xtrix
Yeah. He's defining U in terms of T.I read the post. Then I went back to the first place that, as far as I can tell, he doesn't make sense. His theory U is not defined; his proposed definition is circular, so such questions that mention it are nugatory unless we first fix that definition. — TonesInDeepFreeze
That's what we're trying to answer. Because humans evolved from animalistic awareness to intelligent humans. For example, homo sapiens?If the argument is that the occurrence of life explains the occurrence of consciousness ... I'll be parting from the debate. My intuitive gut belief is that life and consciousness are correlated. But I can't provide you with a proof of this. — javra
My question is this. How do we add the reflection schema to a theory such that the proof predicate Prov_U() includes the reflection schema itself. Would the following do the trick?
P8: P_1 & P_2 & … & P_7 & Prov_T(⌜phi⌝) → phi — Newberry
I'm linking a thread here where there are articles linked to support biological changes leading to intelligence of humans.I do not think we know what human intelligence is. — Jackson
You can't talk about evolution without the biology. That's what evolution explains -- the biological changes in humans.At any rate, I still hold these questions to not be answerable via biological evolution per se. — javra
Until then, let's stick to reality.No, but I think AI will be a different kind of thinking and not merely computing. — Jackson
Biology, evolution -- whatever it takes.This is a significant change in argument. The OP, to which I responded, addresses evolution as explanation for consciousness - not biology. There's a very distinct difference between the two. — javra
No I have not provided you with the how. I've only been talking about examples of consciousness. So, we can proceed then to discuss how biology is the reason why consciousness exists -- as a start.What you provide is not an explanation of how consciousness comes about via the mechanisms of biological evolution - in brief, natural selection acting upon mutations. — javra
Oops, actually, I meant to include Philosophy there. I didn't review my post. But yes, I agree.You're not mentioning philosophy, which I think is of greater importance than the disciplines you've mentioned. — javra
Uhm, yeah that's what I meant -- we do know through the inter-disciplinary studies. Tests and studies show this.Sure, but we don't know this via our inferential knowledge of biological evolution, right? — javra
They do. Let's cite some studies from the medical community. For example, the consciousness of babies is defined as that recognizing the mother's voice and face, then later awareness of body parts, etc. As adults we are aware of our own mortality and what is death. So, we are aware of the future and what happened in the past.To be clear, my question was that of “how does biological evolution explain how consciousness comes about, this when biological evolution (as theory we employ for explanations and predictions) does not of itself provide us with an explanation of what is conscious and what is not conscious." — javra
What does and does not have consciousness is an inter-disciplinary topic covered by biology, psychology, and specialized areas such as neurology. Of course, different levels of consciousness exist among living beings. But human consciousness is the most understood -- so I only referred to human consciousness.So I'll ask: How can the mechanics of biological evolution explain how consciousness comes about when it cannot provide an explanation of what does and does not have consciousness? — javra
This is, again, confusing the how with the why question by those who answer the question that way. They're answering the how thinking they're providing the why answer. Philosophically, we cannot answer why humans have sensations, consciousness, and feelings. We can only answer the how humans became this way -- through mutation, evolution, etc.So when presenting someone not familiar with the hard problem, or even has really grasped it (and is not of a mystical bent), they will quickly answer: "Because evolution has created it!" when asked, "Why is it we have sensations, thoughts, feelings associated with physical processes?".
How does one actually get the point across why this is not an acceptable answer as far as the hard problem is concerned? — schopenhauer1
You can only if P8: is defined in your theory. Otherwise, do equivalence or some other logic axioms. Or embed Prov_T() in Prov_U().My question is this. How do we add the reflection schema to a theory such that the proof predicate Prov_U() includes the reflection schema itself. Would the following do the trick?
P8: P_1 & P_2 & … & P_7 & Prov_T(⌜phi⌝) → phi — Newberry
No. Advertising to the public does not create a legal or binding relation with the audience. You could ignore advertising. I think it's clear from the definition here that those relations that would create personal relations are ones that are binding -- financial obligations, for example, as in loans or extension of credit.Obviously, advertising qualifies as a pre-existing relation, so that the exchange cannot be called an impersonal exchange. The type of relation which advertising is, needs to be further expounded to draw out the affect which it has on the exchange. — Metaphysician Undercover
I did not. My use of "or" means that you could take any one of those listed to use as example. I hope we are clear on this-- command economy is not the same as socialist economy.Two things. First, and least important - it is a mistake to conflate command economies with 'socialist economic systems'. — Streetlight
Then you are changing your definition of impersonal exchange, which is against the rules of argumentation. Again, an impersonal exchange exists in command economy. The target buyers do not have to have binding relations with the authority in order to purchase, nor a personal relations must exist in order to make the purchase. I think we need to revisit the definition of command economy. Just because a government controls capitals and production, it doesn't mean that the public must all be bound one way or another.Second and far more important: a command economy is the opposite of impersonal exchange: it thoroughly personalizes (or rather, socializes) a market such that exchange in a command economy are precisely not spot exchanges. Market 'control' by a central state means precisely that such markets are anything but impersonal, and that exchanges under such conditions are embedded in social and political relations which dictate them from without. So it is wrong to say, as you have, that impersonal markets are features of command economies. I don't say this in any kind of defence of command economies. But it does point to a misunderstanding of either impersonal exchange, or command economies on your part. — Streetlight
For purposes of expediency, let's stick to the description below that Streetlight provided, see quote below. I'm cool with it. So, if that is so, then capitalism and other economic systems do necessarily form impersonal markets. Not to be confused with market economy whose umbilical cord is tied to capitalism. As you can see, the latter is a special term given to describe what happens in capitalism.Capitalism does not succeed in creating impersonal markets, The personal relations are just disguised, so as not to appear as part of the actual market. Consider advertising for example, it's nothing but a personal appeal. This we call marketing. — Metaphysician Undercover
A market is, first and foremost, a site of what might be called impersonal exchange. It is ‘impersonal’ insofar that those who participate do not, for the most part, have any pre-existing obligations, bonds, or relations to one another. This ‘impersonal’ aspect of markets is what makes it different to say, gift economies, where gifts might be exchanged in order to keep up good relations between tribes. — Streetlight
I don't know if you're directing this to my post. But my response to this is, at the moment I can't entertain inchoate comments as this thread has too many important points and already several pages long.command economies aren't market economies. — RolandTyme
I am challenging the bolded sections of the passage above because these are simply not what define capitalism. Rather, they occur despite capitalism. So, my confusion is brought about by these two features that were already present in other economic systems that are not capitalism.Yet even here, neither the generalization nor the reproduction of the conditions impersonal production is enough to get us to capitalism. One further, crucial step needs to be taken. ....
It is at this point, where the general mode of production becomes geared towards the market, that capitalism proper can be said to come into being. And this, ultimately is the difference in kind between markets and capitalism. Markets bear upon issues of exchange: how goods move from one set of hands to another. Capitalism..., cannot be understood apart from issues of production: of who and what is it that stuff is produced for. — Streetlight
Thank god I wasn't thinking of Marxism. And I don't know if this is even relevant to say, but I took economics in graduate level and political economic system in the undergraduate level, so I'm pretty sure my confusion did not come from that.Capitalism is something that rarely gets challenged, even today. You have to really seek it out. Marx's name gets thrown around a lot, of course, but much like other classics -- highly praised and rarely read. This could be a reason for the difficulty or lack of understanding? — Xtrix
Funny in science, the why overlaps the how and in an attempt to satisfy questions of the why, they would proceed to again explain a phenomenon in terms of how. Why does it rain? Because when water vapor collects in the clouds and precipitation....Am I the only one to understand that the "why?" question is invalid only when looking at it through a scientific framework. So it is not that the question is silly, rather the framework is inappropriate. — M777
So with my Pessimist philosophy, I have distilled the idea that Comply or Die is a feature of the human condition. Basically, this means that we either comply with the conditions we are situated in (socioeconomic in particular) or we will die a slow death due to not playing the game correctly or simply outright suicide (outright rejection of the game). — schopenhauer1
No, questioning it is not problematic, or even putting it that way is not problematic. I mistakenly believed that this thread is about an alternative reality where people are not compelled to produce.Is there something about being in a position that one must do X for their survival that is callous or problematic? — schopenhauer1
I'm on board with this! If moral psychology is recognized as testable, verifiable findings on morality, I am a subscriber. I already reject relativism -- this is a sorry-ass approach to morality. But pluralism can be incorporated into your paradigm. I think it is already.I do believe it can be objective, in both an Epistemic and everyday, ordinary sense of the word, for the reason that acts of kindness, v. .olunteer service, donations, assumptions of responsibility, manifestations of human decency take place daily in this world. That is evidence; that is data to be ordered and explained by a logical framework, a system, that would constitute the seeds of a genuine scientific theory.
In fact I would go further and claim that if one considers Psychology to be a science, then that branch of Psych that deals with matters of ethical concern, namely Moral Psychology, which employs experiments to establish correlations, assigns degrees of reliability to its findings, indexes and dates its conclusions, admits that those are all tentative and subject to further investigation and update, etc.,ethics is already, in a sense, science!![/u — Marvin Katz